CSAT PAPER - II PRACTICE PAPER
Ramesh have named his four girls after favorite relatives; his friend, Sohan, have also done the same thing with his three girls. One of them have twin girls. From the following clues, Can you determine the full names of all seven children and their ages?
A) Rekha is four years older than his twin sisters.
B) Lakshmi, who is eight, and Reshma are not sisters. They are each named after a grandmother.
C) Smita is two years younger than his sister Indira, but three years’ older than Sneha.
D) Nidhi is ten years old.
E) Reshma is three years younger than Rekha; they are not related.
F) The twins are named after aunts.
Give answer belong to above passage:
1.Wlho among the following is not a Ganesh child?
(a) Nidhi
(b) Sneha
(c) Smita
(d) Lakshmi
1.Wlho among the following is not a Ganesh child?
(a) Nidhi
(b) Sneha
(c) Smita
(d) Lakshmi
2.Who among the following are Rekha’s twin sisters?
(a) Lakshmi and Indira
(b) Nidhi and Sneha
(c) Smita and Reshma
(d) Lakshmi and Reshma
3.Who among the following is 11years old?
(A) Rekha
(B) Nidhi
(C) Smita
(D) Reshma.
4. Who among the following is the eldest Rohan’?
(A) Reshma
(B) Smita
(C) Indira
(D) Lakshmi
5. Who among the following is the youngest of all children?
(A) Rekha
(B) Lakshmi
(C) Indira
(D) Smita
6.Which among the following is NOT correct?
(A) Nidhi is four years younger than Rekha.
(B) Reshma is named after his grandmother.
(C) Indira is the eldest of all.
(D) Rekha is 15 years old.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
Magnanimous though it may seem to Congress partisans, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh's offer to appear before the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament to answer questions relating to the allocation of 2G spectrum the question of why his government is so keen to avoid the setting up of a Joint Parliamentary Committee. Dr. Singh said that, like Caesar's wife, the Prime Minister should be above suspicion and hence his willingness to be questioned by a committee whose chairman is the formidable Bharatiya Janata Party stalwart, Murli Manohar Joshi. Sticking with Roman references, however, many will say that having crossed the inquisitorial Rubicon, the Prime Minister ought to have no reservations about appearing before a JPC either.
(a) Lakshmi and Indira
(b) Nidhi and Sneha
(c) Smita and Reshma
(d) Lakshmi and Reshma
3.Who among the following is 11years old?
(A) Rekha
(B) Nidhi
(C) Smita
(D) Reshma.
4. Who among the following is the eldest Rohan’?
(A) Reshma
(B) Smita
(C) Indira
(D) Lakshmi
5. Who among the following is the youngest of all children?
(A) Rekha
(B) Lakshmi
(C) Indira
(D) Smita
6.Which among the following is NOT correct?
(A) Nidhi is four years younger than Rekha.
(B) Reshma is named after his grandmother.
(C) Indira is the eldest of all.
(D) Rekha is 15 years old.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
Magnanimous though it may seem to Congress partisans, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh's offer to appear before the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament to answer questions relating to the allocation of 2G spectrum the question of why his government is so keen to avoid the setting up of a Joint Parliamentary Committee. Dr. Singh said that, like Caesar's wife, the Prime Minister should be above suspicion and hence his willingness to be questioned by a committee whose chairman is the formidable Bharatiya Janata Party stalwart, Murli Manohar Joshi. Sticking with Roman references, however, many will say that having crossed the inquisitorial Rubicon, the Prime Minister ought to have no reservations about appearing before a JPC either.
7. By offering to appear before the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament to answer questions relating to the allocation of 2G spectrum the Prime MInister has
(a) Given a maganimous offer to congress partisans
(b) Given a maganimous offer to congress partisans and opposition parties
(c) Simply agreed to answer questions relating to the allocation of 2G spectrum
(d) Agreed to the opposition demands
8. Why the Prime Minister is so keen to avoid the setting up of a Joint Parliamentary Committee
(a) It is below the dignity of the Prime Minister to appear before the Joint Parliamentary
Committee
(b) The Prime Minister is afraid that the JPC would be able to find out the wrong doings
of the Government
(c) The Prime MIister wants to avoid JPC because its chairman is the formidable
Bharatiya Janata Party stalwart, Murli Manohar Joshi
(d) The Prime Minister is of the opinion that the office of the Prime Minister should be
above suspicion
9. Which of the following is definitely true
(a) There is something wrong done by the Prime Minister
(b) Public Accounts Committee does not have much teeth
(c) Murli Manohar Joshi has provided credibility to the Public Accounts Committee
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee inspires more confidence than the Public Accounts Committee
(a) Given a maganimous offer to congress partisans
(b) Given a maganimous offer to congress partisans and opposition parties
(c) Simply agreed to answer questions relating to the allocation of 2G spectrum
(d) Agreed to the opposition demands
8. Why the Prime Minister is so keen to avoid the setting up of a Joint Parliamentary Committee
(a) It is below the dignity of the Prime Minister to appear before the Joint Parliamentary
Committee
(b) The Prime Minister is afraid that the JPC would be able to find out the wrong doings
of the Government
(c) The Prime MIister wants to avoid JPC because its chairman is the formidable
Bharatiya Janata Party stalwart, Murli Manohar Joshi
(d) The Prime Minister is of the opinion that the office of the Prime Minister should be
above suspicion
9. Which of the following is definitely true
(a) There is something wrong done by the Prime Minister
(b) Public Accounts Committee does not have much teeth
(c) Murli Manohar Joshi has provided credibility to the Public Accounts Committee
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee inspires more confidence than the Public Accounts Committee
10. The main theme of the paragraph is
(a) corruption in 2G spectrum allocation
(b) role of the Prime Minister in the 2G spectrum allocation
(c) highlighting the importance of Roman reference
(d) analysing the Prime Minister's decision not to appear before the Joint Parliamentary Committee
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
The world economy, according to most forecasters, is expected to grow in 2010 by nearly five per cent. This surprisingly good performance, however, hides the fact that the recovery continues to be uneven among the three broad categories — the United States, the Euro zone, and the developing countries. Equally significantly, the recovery is taking place despite a marked lack of coordination among the major economic powers in solving their common problems. Dire predictions of a year ago have not materialised to the extent feared. Financial sector concerns shared by many countries have dissipated in recent months, although, as the world's leading central banks never fail to warn, the possibility of another global financial crisis cannot be ruled out.
(a) corruption in 2G spectrum allocation
(b) role of the Prime Minister in the 2G spectrum allocation
(c) highlighting the importance of Roman reference
(d) analysing the Prime Minister's decision not to appear before the Joint Parliamentary Committee
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
The world economy, according to most forecasters, is expected to grow in 2010 by nearly five per cent. This surprisingly good performance, however, hides the fact that the recovery continues to be uneven among the three broad categories — the United States, the Euro zone, and the developing countries. Equally significantly, the recovery is taking place despite a marked lack of coordination among the major economic powers in solving their common problems. Dire predictions of a year ago have not materialised to the extent feared. Financial sector concerns shared by many countries have dissipated in recent months, although, as the world's leading central banks never fail to warn, the possibility of another global financial crisis cannot be ruled out.
11. Which of the following statements are correct about the World economy
(a) The growth of the world economy in 2010 will be 5%
(b) The economy of the US, euro zone and the developing countries has been performing badly
(c) Had the major conomic power cooperated the economy would have performed better
(d) The world economy had faced a crisis and now is in the process of recovering
12. Which of the following statements is not correct
(a) The world economy is recovering in 2010
(b) There has been uneven recovery in US, euro zone and the developing countries
(c) The dire predictions of the financial sector have been proved incorrect
(d) The possibility of another global financial crisis is imminent
13. The expected growth of world economy in 2010 by 5% signifies which of the following
(a) It is a good recovery especially after a crisis
(b) It is important to understand the discrepancies in the growth amongst the three broad categories — the United States, the Euro zone, and the developing countri
(c) There should be coordination among the major economic powers in solving their common problems
(d) All of the above
14. Which of the following statement is correct about the role of the world's leading central banks
(a) Their predictions have failed
(b) The credibility of the leading banks' is doubtful
(c) The bank's job is to warn of the eventuality of a financeial crisis
(d) The banks are waiting for another financial crisis
15. The main theme of the paragraph is
(a) highlighting the growth rate of 5% in 2010
(b) highlighting the recovery of the world economy after a financial crisis
(c) highlighting the uneven recovery of the global economy
(d) cautioning about another financial crisis
(a) The growth of the world economy in 2010 will be 5%
(b) The economy of the US, euro zone and the developing countries has been performing badly
(c) Had the major conomic power cooperated the economy would have performed better
(d) The world economy had faced a crisis and now is in the process of recovering
12. Which of the following statements is not correct
(a) The world economy is recovering in 2010
(b) There has been uneven recovery in US, euro zone and the developing countries
(c) The dire predictions of the financial sector have been proved incorrect
(d) The possibility of another global financial crisis is imminent
13. The expected growth of world economy in 2010 by 5% signifies which of the following
(a) It is a good recovery especially after a crisis
(b) It is important to understand the discrepancies in the growth amongst the three broad categories — the United States, the Euro zone, and the developing countri
(c) There should be coordination among the major economic powers in solving their common problems
(d) All of the above
14. Which of the following statement is correct about the role of the world's leading central banks
(a) Their predictions have failed
(b) The credibility of the leading banks' is doubtful
(c) The bank's job is to warn of the eventuality of a financeial crisis
(d) The banks are waiting for another financial crisis
15. The main theme of the paragraph is
(a) highlighting the growth rate of 5% in 2010
(b) highlighting the recovery of the world economy after a financial crisis
(c) highlighting the uneven recovery of the global economy
(d) cautioning about another financial crisis
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
A major consequence of fast-paced motorisation and expansion of roads and highways in India is the mounting rate of fatalities and injuries from traffic accidents. More than 110,000 people are killed on the roads each year, with the death toll rising by eight per cent annually; the estimate for serious injuries is 1.6 million. India's roads are now rated the worst in the world. Viewed against this background, the road safety initiative launched by the central government and the World Bank to cover 3,000 km of high-risk national and State highways in Assam, Gujarat, and Karnataka is an incremental step to improve the situation. Under the plan, affordable improvements based on the latest technologies will be put in place to reduce crashes and fatalities. The project will draw upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme supported by the World Bank in several countries. The investments can improve the safety record of some roads. What is important, however, is for the government to demonstrate the political will to move beyond limited schemes in a few States. The continuing carnage demands a policy of zero tolerance to crashes covering the entire network of 65,000-plus km of national highways and the quarter million km of urban roads. Almost three years ago, the Sundar Committee recommended a national road safety policy but precious little has been done by way of implementation.
drawn from the content of given passage only.
A major consequence of fast-paced motorisation and expansion of roads and highways in India is the mounting rate of fatalities and injuries from traffic accidents. More than 110,000 people are killed on the roads each year, with the death toll rising by eight per cent annually; the estimate for serious injuries is 1.6 million. India's roads are now rated the worst in the world. Viewed against this background, the road safety initiative launched by the central government and the World Bank to cover 3,000 km of high-risk national and State highways in Assam, Gujarat, and Karnataka is an incremental step to improve the situation. Under the plan, affordable improvements based on the latest technologies will be put in place to reduce crashes and fatalities. The project will draw upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme supported by the World Bank in several countries. The investments can improve the safety record of some roads. What is important, however, is for the government to demonstrate the political will to move beyond limited schemes in a few States. The continuing carnage demands a policy of zero tolerance to crashes covering the entire network of 65,000-plus km of national highways and the quarter million km of urban roads. Almost three years ago, the Sundar Committee recommended a national road safety policy but precious little has been done by way of implementation.
16. In the beginning of the paragraph the author wants to convey that
(a) India is experiencing a fast-paced motorisation and expansion of roads and highways
(b) The death of 110,000 people on the roads each year
(c) The estimated serious injuries of 1.6 million
(d) Poor quality of roads
17. What does author means by saying that "India's roads are now rated the worst in the world"
(a) The roads in India are actually the worst in the world
(b) India is one of the worst country in the world
(c) There is an urgent need to improve the conditions of road in India
(d) So many deaths and injury on roads justify India to be the worst country
18. The road safety initiative has been launched by the central government to
(a) improve the conditions of the road
(b) please world bank
(c) improve the safety record of some roads
(d) prevent crashes and fatalities on roads
(a) India is experiencing a fast-paced motorisation and expansion of roads and highways
(b) The death of 110,000 people on the roads each year
(c) The estimated serious injuries of 1.6 million
(d) Poor quality of roads
17. What does author means by saying that "India's roads are now rated the worst in the world"
(a) The roads in India are actually the worst in the world
(b) India is one of the worst country in the world
(c) There is an urgent need to improve the conditions of road in India
(d) So many deaths and injury on roads justify India to be the worst country
18. The road safety initiative has been launched by the central government to
(a) improve the conditions of the road
(b) please world bank
(c) improve the safety record of some roads
(d) prevent crashes and fatalities on roads
19. What is special about the the road safety initiative
(a) It is being assisted by the World Bank
(b) It will cover 3,000 km of high-risk national and State highways in Assam, Gujarat, and Karnataka
(c) It will reduce crashes and fatalities on some roads
(d) It will draw upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme supported by the World Bank in several countries
20. Which of the following is appreciated by the author regarding the road safety initiative
(a) It is covering the high risk national and state highways
(b) It can improve the safety record of some roads
(c) It draws upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme
(d) The role of the world bank in the road safety initiative
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
Sachin Tendulkar said it best when asked what his 50th Test century meant to him. He struggled at first to articulate himself but eventually conveyed the sense that it was just another number — a satisfying number no doubt, but just another. As he has said time and again, records matter little to him; what has driven him to play for 21 years is an unaffected love for the game, which hasn't dimmed since he knew it first as a little boy. Yet it's through his numbers that we can better value his genius. It's these records — his ODI double-hundred earlier this year, for instance — that help nuance the understanding of greatness. So while a 50th hundred is no more significant than a 51st or a 49th, the roundness of the number presents the opportunity to stand back and appreciate what the achievement involves. Longevity is the litmus test of greatness — over a long career, even more so in the case of Tendulkar's which has spanned cricket eras, no facet remains untested. Consider that he started against Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, and Waqar Younis — three of the greatest fast-bowlers of all time — and made his 50th hundred against Dale Steyn, who will soon have a similar standing, and the scale of the feat becomes apparent.
(a) It is being assisted by the World Bank
(b) It will cover 3,000 km of high-risk national and State highways in Assam, Gujarat, and Karnataka
(c) It will reduce crashes and fatalities on some roads
(d) It will draw upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme supported by the World Bank in several countries
20. Which of the following is appreciated by the author regarding the road safety initiative
(a) It is covering the high risk national and state highways
(b) It can improve the safety record of some roads
(c) It draws upon the experience of the International Road Assessment Programme
(d) The role of the world bank in the road safety initiative
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
Sachin Tendulkar said it best when asked what his 50th Test century meant to him. He struggled at first to articulate himself but eventually conveyed the sense that it was just another number — a satisfying number no doubt, but just another. As he has said time and again, records matter little to him; what has driven him to play for 21 years is an unaffected love for the game, which hasn't dimmed since he knew it first as a little boy. Yet it's through his numbers that we can better value his genius. It's these records — his ODI double-hundred earlier this year, for instance — that help nuance the understanding of greatness. So while a 50th hundred is no more significant than a 51st or a 49th, the roundness of the number presents the opportunity to stand back and appreciate what the achievement involves. Longevity is the litmus test of greatness — over a long career, even more so in the case of Tendulkar's which has spanned cricket eras, no facet remains untested. Consider that he started against Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, and Waqar Younis — three of the greatest fast-bowlers of all time — and made his 50th hundred against Dale Steyn, who will soon have a similar standing, and the scale of the feat becomes apparent.
21. Which of the following is the best thing Sachin said when asked what his 50th Test century meant to him
(a) A significant achievment
(b) A new land mark in his cricket career
(c) Just another achievment
(d) A satisfying another achievment
22. Which of the following is most important for Schin
(a) 50th Test century
(b) ODI double-hundred
(c) Both
(d) Love for cricket
(a) A significant achievment
(b) A new land mark in his cricket career
(c) Just another achievment
(d) A satisfying another achievment
22. Which of the following is most important for Schin
(a) 50th Test century
(b) ODI double-hundred
(c) Both
(d) Love for cricket
23. Why the author is emphasising on 50th Test century
(a) It is a great record
(b) Records do not matter for Sachin
(c) It is a number by which the author wants to appreciate Schin's achievment
(d) 50 is the standard number for judging any record
24. Which of the following is most appreciated by the author
(a) 50th Test century
(b) ODI double-hundred
(c) Sachin's love for cricket
(d) Longevity of Sachin's career
(a) It is a great record
(b) Records do not matter for Sachin
(c) It is a number by which the author wants to appreciate Schin's achievment
(d) 50 is the standard number for judging any record
24. Which of the following is most appreciated by the author
(a) 50th Test century
(b) ODI double-hundred
(c) Sachin's love for cricket
(d) Longevity of Sachin's career
25. According to the author which of the following is special about Sachin
(a) His 21 year cricket career
(b) Ability to face fast bowler like Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, and Waqar Younis
(c) His 50th Test century against Dale Steyn
(d) Successfully facing all challenges in a long cricket career
26. What can be deduced about Dale Steyn
(a) He is a great bowler
(b) He is a fast bowler
(c) He could not prevent Sachin from making a century
(d) Nothing can be said about Dale Steyn
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
The Italian Prime Minister, Silvio Berlusconi, who began his current term two years ago with a majority of 100, has had to face a second confidence vote test in less than three months. He managed to scrape through: while the Senate margin was comfortable, he survived by the skin of his teeth, three votes, in the 630-member Chamber of Deputies. The proceedings in the lower house were extremely rancorous; members almost came to blows. After the vote, there were violent street clashes between protesters and police. Earlier, the Speaker of the lower house, Gianfranco Fini, a former political ally and now a deadly foe, accused the Prime Minister and his right-wing People of Freedom (PdL) party of buying MPs; another MP mentioned inducements of € 500,000. Some of the street fighting was severe. More than 100 people were injured and substantial damage caused to public and private property. There were also demonstrations across the country; in Palermo, students blocked the central station and the airport, and in Milan demonstrators broke into the stock exchange building.
(a) His 21 year cricket career
(b) Ability to face fast bowler like Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, and Waqar Younis
(c) His 50th Test century against Dale Steyn
(d) Successfully facing all challenges in a long cricket career
26. What can be deduced about Dale Steyn
(a) He is a great bowler
(b) He is a fast bowler
(c) He could not prevent Sachin from making a century
(d) Nothing can be said about Dale Steyn
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be
drawn from the content of given passage only.
The Italian Prime Minister, Silvio Berlusconi, who began his current term two years ago with a majority of 100, has had to face a second confidence vote test in less than three months. He managed to scrape through: while the Senate margin was comfortable, he survived by the skin of his teeth, three votes, in the 630-member Chamber of Deputies. The proceedings in the lower house were extremely rancorous; members almost came to blows. After the vote, there were violent street clashes between protesters and police. Earlier, the Speaker of the lower house, Gianfranco Fini, a former political ally and now a deadly foe, accused the Prime Minister and his right-wing People of Freedom (PdL) party of buying MPs; another MP mentioned inducements of € 500,000. Some of the street fighting was severe. More than 100 people were injured and substantial damage caused to public and private property. There were also demonstrations across the country; in Palermo, students blocked the central station and the airport, and in Milan demonstrators broke into the stock exchange building.
27. What can be said about Mr. Berlusconi
(a) He is a popular political person
(b) Majority of the senators are his followiers
(c) The chamber of Deputies have more opponents of Mr. Berlusconi
(d) Mr. Berlusconi has hit the lowest point of his political career
28. What can be deduced about the political scenario in Italy
(a) The right-wing People of Freedom (PdL) party has become corrupt
(b) Protests and demonstrations is the order of the day
(c) A uniited opposition against Mr. Berlusconi
(d) Absence of any other political vision
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be drawn from the content of given passage only.
Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal idea of the economic market when he said that the free enterprise system is the most efficient economic system. Maximum freedom means maximum productiveness; our “openness” is to be the measure of our stability.
Fascination with this ideal has made Americans defy the “Old World” categories of settled possessiveness versus unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention versus the cupidity of seizure, a “status quo” defended or attacked. The United States, it was believed, had no status quo ante. Our only “station” was the turning of a stationary wheel, spinning faster and faster. We did not base our system on property but opportunity, which meant we based it not on stability but on mobility. The more things changed, that is, the more rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would be. The conventional picture of class politics is composed of the Haves, who want a stability to keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who want a touch of instability and change in which to scramble for the things they have not. But Americans imagined a condition in which speculators, selfmakers, runners are always using the new opportunities given by our land. These economic leaders (front-runners) would thus be mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were considered the ones who wanted stability, a strong referee to give them some position in the race, a regulative hand to calm manic speculation; an authority that can call things to a halt, begin things again from compensatorily staggered “starting lines.” “Reform” in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, “a piece of the action,” as it were, for the disenfranchised. There is no attempt to call off the race. Since our only stability is change, America seems not to honor the quiet work that achieves social interdependence and stability. There is, in our legends, no heroism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work force of the people who actually make the system work. There is no pride in being an employee (Wilson asked for a return to the time when everyone was an employer). There has been no boasting about our social workers—they are merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportunity denied or not taken, of things to be eliminated. We have no pride in our growing interdependence, in the fact that our system can serve others, that we are able to help those in need; empty boasts from the past make us ashamed of our present achievements, make us try to forget or deny them, move away from them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland race we must all run, all trying to win, none winning in the end (for there is no end).
(a) He is a popular political person
(b) Majority of the senators are his followiers
(c) The chamber of Deputies have more opponents of Mr. Berlusconi
(d) Mr. Berlusconi has hit the lowest point of his political career
28. What can be deduced about the political scenario in Italy
(a) The right-wing People of Freedom (PdL) party has become corrupt
(b) Protests and demonstrations is the order of the day
(c) A uniited opposition against Mr. Berlusconi
(d) Absence of any other political vision
Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be drawn from the content of given passage only.
Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal idea of the economic market when he said that the free enterprise system is the most efficient economic system. Maximum freedom means maximum productiveness; our “openness” is to be the measure of our stability.
Fascination with this ideal has made Americans defy the “Old World” categories of settled possessiveness versus unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention versus the cupidity of seizure, a “status quo” defended or attacked. The United States, it was believed, had no status quo ante. Our only “station” was the turning of a stationary wheel, spinning faster and faster. We did not base our system on property but opportunity, which meant we based it not on stability but on mobility. The more things changed, that is, the more rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would be. The conventional picture of class politics is composed of the Haves, who want a stability to keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who want a touch of instability and change in which to scramble for the things they have not. But Americans imagined a condition in which speculators, selfmakers, runners are always using the new opportunities given by our land. These economic leaders (front-runners) would thus be mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were considered the ones who wanted stability, a strong referee to give them some position in the race, a regulative hand to calm manic speculation; an authority that can call things to a halt, begin things again from compensatorily staggered “starting lines.” “Reform” in America has been sterile because it can imagine no change except through the extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclusion of competitors, “a piece of the action,” as it were, for the disenfranchised. There is no attempt to call off the race. Since our only stability is change, America seems not to honor the quiet work that achieves social interdependence and stability. There is, in our legends, no heroism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work force of the people who actually make the system work. There is no pride in being an employee (Wilson asked for a return to the time when everyone was an employer). There has been no boasting about our social workers—they are merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportunity denied or not taken, of things to be eliminated. We have no pride in our growing interdependence, in the fact that our system can serve others, that we are able to help those in need; empty boasts from the past make us ashamed of our present achievements, make us try to forget or deny them, move away from them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland race we must all run, all trying to win, none winning in the end (for there is no end).
29. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) Criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology
(b) Contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic ideologies
(c) Challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders
(d) Champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected
30. According to the passage, “Old World” values were based on
(a) Ability
(b) Property
(c) Family connections
(d) Guild hierarchies
(a) Criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology
(b) Contrast “Old World” and “New World” economic ideologies
(c) Challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders
(d) Champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected
30. According to the passage, “Old World” values were based on
(a) Ability
(b) Property
(c) Family connections
(d) Guild hierarchies
31. In the context of the author’s discussion of regulating change, which of the following could be most probably regarded as a “strong referee” in the United States?
(a) A school principal
(b) A political theorist
(c) A federal court judge
(d) A social worker
32. The author sets off the word “Reform” with quotation marks in order to
(a) Emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness
(b) Show his support for a systematic program of change
(c) Underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society
(d) Assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental
33. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised “a piece of the action” is
(a) A compassionate, if misdirected, legislative measure
(b) An example of Americans’ resistance to profound social change
(c) An innovative program for genuine social reform
(d) A monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
34. Which of the following metaphors could the author most appropriately use to summarize his own assessment of the American economic system
(a) A windmill
(b) A waterfall
(c) A treadmill
(d) A gyroscope
35. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market
(a) encouraged those who “make the system work”
(b) Perpetuated traditional legends about America
(c) Revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
(d) Foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
36. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?
I. What techniques have industrialists used to manipulate a free market?
II. In what ways are “New World” and “Old World” economic policies similar?
III. Has economic policy in the United States tended to reward independent action?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and II only
37. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?
(a) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
(b) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.
(c) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States.
(d) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.
Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the question that follows:
38. Statement: Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that virtually all businesses are likely to have employees who suffer from, or may develop, this condition.
Conclusion I: Heart disease may affect employees in any type of business.
Conclusion II: Heart disease can affect people of any age.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
39. Statement: So much of the literature of the western world, including a large part of its greatest literature, was either written for actual speaking or in a mode of speech
Conclusion I: Until the nineteenth century, most people could only read with difficulty
Conclusion II: In ancient times, literature was intended to be read aloud
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
40. Statement: Millions of lives around the world could be saved, and the quality of life of hundreds of millions markedly improved - very inexpensively - by eradicating three vitamin and mineral deficiencies in people's diets
Statement I: Most illnesses in developing countries are caused by vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Conclusion II: Micronutrients provide inadequate nourishment to maintain a healthy life
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
41. Statement: The clinical guidelines in asthma therapy have now moved towards antiinflammatory therapy - and away from regular bronchiodilator therapy - for all but the mildest asthmatics.
Conclusion I: Only mild cases of asthma can be helped by anti-inflammatory therapy
Conclusion II: anti-inflammatory therapy is more reliable than regular bronchiodilator therapy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
42. Statement: Buddhism in Japan entered a new era in which it catered mainly to the court nobility. In the Kamakura period (1192-1338), an age of great political unrest and social confusion, there emerged many new sects of Buddhism offering hope of salvation to warriors and peasants alike.
Conclusion I: Buddhism was adopted by the court nobility at the urging of the emperor
Conclusion II: The introduction of Buddhism to Japan led to great political unrest and social confusion.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
43. Statement: In Japan, companies generally expect their employees to put in long hours of overtime. But it is difficult for women, who also have household chores to do and children to take care of, to work at the same pace as men, who are not burdened with such responsibilities. Many women inevitably opt for part-time jobs, which enable them to combine work and domestic duties. At present, 23% of all female salaried workers are part-timers and the ratio has been on the rise in recent years
Conclusion I: Japanese men do not share household chores and childcare with their wives
Conclusion II: A quarter of all part-time workers in Japan are female
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
44. Statement: Abdominal pain in children may be a symptom of emotional disturbance, especially where it appears in conjunction with phobias or sleep disorders such as nightmares or sleep-walking.
Conclusion I: There is no clear cause for abdominal pain in children
Conclusion II: Abdominal pain in children may be psychosomatic in nature.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
45. Statement: A healthy citizen contributes to the making of a healthy nation. The
Government of India has introduced various health programmes and policies to improve the Indian citizen's standard of living.
Conclusion I: The Government is keen to see its citizen happy
Conclusion II: It is very essential to be helathy in order to be happy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
46. Statement: Yoga is a science as well an art of healthy living physically, mentally, morally and spiritually. It is not limited by race, age, sex, religion, cast or creed and can be practiced by those who seek fitness and well-being.
Conclusion I: Anybody can practice Yoga
Conclusion II: Yogic science is the only way to remain healthy physically, mentally, morally and spiritually
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
47. Statement: Homeopathy has been practiced in India for more than a century and a half. It is recognised as one of the National Systems of Medicine and plays an important role in providing health care to a large number of people.
Conclusion I: India has good expertise in homeopathy
Conclusion II: Homeopathy caters to the health care of the majority of the Indians
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
48. Statement: India is one of the most populated countries in the world, second after China. With a workforce of more than 440 million, a huge pool of English-speaking graduates and a fast-growing economy, the need for employment opportunities has increased drastically.
Conclusion I: The huge population is a boon for India
Conclusion II: The employment opportunities in India are not sufficient for its educated workforce.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
49. Statement: India is part of a global trend that is advancing towards an increasing urbanisation, according to which more than half of the world's population is living in towns and cities.
Conclusion I: The urbanisation in India is in line with the global trend
Conclusion II: India is experiencing increased prosperity due to urbanisation
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
50. Statement: Education has been a thrust sector ever since India attained independence.
The leaders of independent India had formulated provisions for primary formal and nonformal education to realise the goal of Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE).
Conclusion I: The primary education is most important
Conclusion II: Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE) is the ultimate goal of
India
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
51. Statement: Nalanda, Vikramashila and Takshashila were few of the oldest universities in the world and were the most renowned seats of higher education during their time. Today India has one of the largest higher education systems in the world and also some world-class institutions for higher education.
Conclusion I: Since ancient times, India has been a centre of excellence in the field of higher education
Conclusion II: The Indian students are most learned in the world
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
52. Statement: Secondary Education serves as a link between the elementary and higher education, and plays a very important role in this respect. A child's future can depend a lot on the type of education she/he receives at the secondary level.
Conclusion I: If secondary education is not proper then the future of the child may be in jeopardy
Conclusion II: Secondary education is more important than primary and higher education
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
53. Statement: As a developing nation India places a large emphasis on higher education.
It has a large number of Colleges and Universities along with a host of other Specialised
Institutions, Training Centres and other colleges which offer a wide variety of courses to choose from.
Conclusion I: The large number of Colleges and Universities are a result of deliberate effort on the part of India to encourage higher education
Conclusion II: Most of the higher courses are available in India
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
54. Statement: Senior Citizens are a treasure to our society. They have worked hard all these years for the development of the nation as well as the community.
Conclusion I: The country which has a large number of senior citizens is a wealthy nation
Conclusion II: India's senior citizens have contributed significantly to the development of the nation
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
55. Statement: Each state and union territory of India has its own separate police force.
Article 246 of the Constitution of India designates the police as a state subject.
Conclusion I: The state governments frame the rules and regulations that govern each police force
Conclusion II: The central government has no say in the running of law and order in the states
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
56. Statement: Agriculture is the means of livelihood for around two thirds of the work force of India. At the time of independence, the revenue from the agricultural sector was quite low compared to what it is today.
Conclusion I: It is one of the most important sectors of the economy.
Conclusion II: There has been tremendous increase in the agricultural production in India since independence
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
57. Statement: Growth of regionalism and regional imbalances has posed obstacles to harmonious nation-building in India.
Conclusion I: Regional imbalances is an inherent feature of India
Conclusion II: Nation-Building is more important than regionalism
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
58. Statement: Democracy with universal adult franchise despite mass illiteracy and ignorance has been a great achievement of the people in the post independence era in India.
Conclusion I: Mass illiteracy and ignorance was rampant at the time of independence
Conclusion II: Universal adult franchise is the most important feature if India's democracy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
(a) A school principal
(b) A political theorist
(c) A federal court judge
(d) A social worker
32. The author sets off the word “Reform” with quotation marks in order to
(a) Emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness
(b) Show his support for a systematic program of change
(c) Underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society
(d) Assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental
33. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised “a piece of the action” is
(a) A compassionate, if misdirected, legislative measure
(b) An example of Americans’ resistance to profound social change
(c) An innovative program for genuine social reform
(d) A monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
34. Which of the following metaphors could the author most appropriately use to summarize his own assessment of the American economic system
(a) A windmill
(b) A waterfall
(c) A treadmill
(d) A gyroscope
35. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market
(a) encouraged those who “make the system work”
(b) Perpetuated traditional legends about America
(c) Revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
(d) Foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
36. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?
I. What techniques have industrialists used to manipulate a free market?
II. In what ways are “New World” and “Old World” economic policies similar?
III. Has economic policy in the United States tended to reward independent action?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and II only
37. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?
(a) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
(b) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.
(c) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States.
(d) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.
Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the question that follows:
38. Statement: Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that virtually all businesses are likely to have employees who suffer from, or may develop, this condition.
Conclusion I: Heart disease may affect employees in any type of business.
Conclusion II: Heart disease can affect people of any age.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
39. Statement: So much of the literature of the western world, including a large part of its greatest literature, was either written for actual speaking or in a mode of speech
Conclusion I: Until the nineteenth century, most people could only read with difficulty
Conclusion II: In ancient times, literature was intended to be read aloud
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
40. Statement: Millions of lives around the world could be saved, and the quality of life of hundreds of millions markedly improved - very inexpensively - by eradicating three vitamin and mineral deficiencies in people's diets
Statement I: Most illnesses in developing countries are caused by vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Conclusion II: Micronutrients provide inadequate nourishment to maintain a healthy life
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
41. Statement: The clinical guidelines in asthma therapy have now moved towards antiinflammatory therapy - and away from regular bronchiodilator therapy - for all but the mildest asthmatics.
Conclusion I: Only mild cases of asthma can be helped by anti-inflammatory therapy
Conclusion II: anti-inflammatory therapy is more reliable than regular bronchiodilator therapy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
42. Statement: Buddhism in Japan entered a new era in which it catered mainly to the court nobility. In the Kamakura period (1192-1338), an age of great political unrest and social confusion, there emerged many new sects of Buddhism offering hope of salvation to warriors and peasants alike.
Conclusion I: Buddhism was adopted by the court nobility at the urging of the emperor
Conclusion II: The introduction of Buddhism to Japan led to great political unrest and social confusion.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
43. Statement: In Japan, companies generally expect their employees to put in long hours of overtime. But it is difficult for women, who also have household chores to do and children to take care of, to work at the same pace as men, who are not burdened with such responsibilities. Many women inevitably opt for part-time jobs, which enable them to combine work and domestic duties. At present, 23% of all female salaried workers are part-timers and the ratio has been on the rise in recent years
Conclusion I: Japanese men do not share household chores and childcare with their wives
Conclusion II: A quarter of all part-time workers in Japan are female
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
44. Statement: Abdominal pain in children may be a symptom of emotional disturbance, especially where it appears in conjunction with phobias or sleep disorders such as nightmares or sleep-walking.
Conclusion I: There is no clear cause for abdominal pain in children
Conclusion II: Abdominal pain in children may be psychosomatic in nature.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
45. Statement: A healthy citizen contributes to the making of a healthy nation. The
Government of India has introduced various health programmes and policies to improve the Indian citizen's standard of living.
Conclusion I: The Government is keen to see its citizen happy
Conclusion II: It is very essential to be helathy in order to be happy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
46. Statement: Yoga is a science as well an art of healthy living physically, mentally, morally and spiritually. It is not limited by race, age, sex, religion, cast or creed and can be practiced by those who seek fitness and well-being.
Conclusion I: Anybody can practice Yoga
Conclusion II: Yogic science is the only way to remain healthy physically, mentally, morally and spiritually
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
47. Statement: Homeopathy has been practiced in India for more than a century and a half. It is recognised as one of the National Systems of Medicine and plays an important role in providing health care to a large number of people.
Conclusion I: India has good expertise in homeopathy
Conclusion II: Homeopathy caters to the health care of the majority of the Indians
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
48. Statement: India is one of the most populated countries in the world, second after China. With a workforce of more than 440 million, a huge pool of English-speaking graduates and a fast-growing economy, the need for employment opportunities has increased drastically.
Conclusion I: The huge population is a boon for India
Conclusion II: The employment opportunities in India are not sufficient for its educated workforce.
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
49. Statement: India is part of a global trend that is advancing towards an increasing urbanisation, according to which more than half of the world's population is living in towns and cities.
Conclusion I: The urbanisation in India is in line with the global trend
Conclusion II: India is experiencing increased prosperity due to urbanisation
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
50. Statement: Education has been a thrust sector ever since India attained independence.
The leaders of independent India had formulated provisions for primary formal and nonformal education to realise the goal of Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE).
Conclusion I: The primary education is most important
Conclusion II: Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE) is the ultimate goal of
India
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
51. Statement: Nalanda, Vikramashila and Takshashila were few of the oldest universities in the world and were the most renowned seats of higher education during their time. Today India has one of the largest higher education systems in the world and also some world-class institutions for higher education.
Conclusion I: Since ancient times, India has been a centre of excellence in the field of higher education
Conclusion II: The Indian students are most learned in the world
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement (d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
52. Statement: Secondary Education serves as a link between the elementary and higher education, and plays a very important role in this respect. A child's future can depend a lot on the type of education she/he receives at the secondary level.
Conclusion I: If secondary education is not proper then the future of the child may be in jeopardy
Conclusion II: Secondary education is more important than primary and higher education
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
53. Statement: As a developing nation India places a large emphasis on higher education.
It has a large number of Colleges and Universities along with a host of other Specialised
Institutions, Training Centres and other colleges which offer a wide variety of courses to choose from.
Conclusion I: The large number of Colleges and Universities are a result of deliberate effort on the part of India to encourage higher education
Conclusion II: Most of the higher courses are available in India
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
54. Statement: Senior Citizens are a treasure to our society. They have worked hard all these years for the development of the nation as well as the community.
Conclusion I: The country which has a large number of senior citizens is a wealthy nation
Conclusion II: India's senior citizens have contributed significantly to the development of the nation
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
55. Statement: Each state and union territory of India has its own separate police force.
Article 246 of the Constitution of India designates the police as a state subject.
Conclusion I: The state governments frame the rules and regulations that govern each police force
Conclusion II: The central government has no say in the running of law and order in the states
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
56. Statement: Agriculture is the means of livelihood for around two thirds of the work force of India. At the time of independence, the revenue from the agricultural sector was quite low compared to what it is today.
Conclusion I: It is one of the most important sectors of the economy.
Conclusion II: There has been tremendous increase in the agricultural production in India since independence
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
57. Statement: Growth of regionalism and regional imbalances has posed obstacles to harmonious nation-building in India.
Conclusion I: Regional imbalances is an inherent feature of India
Conclusion II: Nation-Building is more important than regionalism
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
58. Statement: Democracy with universal adult franchise despite mass illiteracy and ignorance has been a great achievement of the people in the post independence era in India.
Conclusion I: Mass illiteracy and ignorance was rampant at the time of independence
Conclusion II: Universal adult franchise is the most important feature if India's democracy
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
59. Statement: Communalism as an ideology with definite goals has not originated from the masses - Hindu, Muslim or Sikh - that can, however, be communally mobilised by the convinced communalists.
Conclusion I: The community Hindu, Muslim or Sikh are not necessarily communalist
Conclusion II: A communalist can be of any religion
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
60. Statement: Just as communalism is politicisation of religion and religious identity, casteism is politicisation of caste.
Conclusion I: Both communalism and casteism are not desirable
Conclusion II: Casteism is more dangerous than communalism
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –IIonly follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
61. Statement: If terrorism and violence triumph, the operation of secular democracy will be jeopardised.
Conclusion I: Terrorism and violence is a potential threat to India's secular democracy
Conclusion II: The secular character of India's democracy is beyond doubt
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
62. Statement: The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine
Conclusion I: The State has imposed the duty of providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years on itself
Conclusion II: The children above fourteen years are capable of getting education on their own
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
63. Statement: No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
Conclusion I: Imparting religious instructions in educational institutions is seen as encouraging communalism
Conclusion II: The State wants to promote secularism in its policies
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
64. Statement: The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Conclusion I: There are several civil codes prevailing in the country
Conclusion II: A uniform civil code will be beneficial for the country
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
65. Statement: After China, India is the most populous country in the world. As per 2001 census report, total population of our country is 102.72 crores.
Conclusion I: China's population is more than 102.72 crores
Conclusion II: India needs to catch up fast in order to surpass China on the population front
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
66. Statement: Corruption, in our country is all pervasive and omnipresent. India is largest democracy of the world.
Conclusion I: Most of the people in India are corrupt
Conclusion II: Large democracies tend to be corrupt
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
67. Which share has shown the largest absolute range in price over the last year?
(a) Huver Co.
(b) Drebs Ltd
(c) Fevs Plc
(d) Fauvers
Conclusion I: The community Hindu, Muslim or Sikh are not necessarily communalist
Conclusion II: A communalist can be of any religion
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement
60. Statement: Just as communalism is politicisation of religion and religious identity, casteism is politicisation of caste.
Conclusion I: Both communalism and casteism are not desirable
Conclusion II: Casteism is more dangerous than communalism
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –IIonly follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
61. Statement: If terrorism and violence triumph, the operation of secular democracy will be jeopardised.
Conclusion I: Terrorism and violence is a potential threat to India's secular democracy
Conclusion II: The secular character of India's democracy is beyond doubt
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
62. Statement: The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine
Conclusion I: The State has imposed the duty of providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years on itself
Conclusion II: The children above fourteen years are capable of getting education on their own
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
63. Statement: No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
Conclusion I: Imparting religious instructions in educational institutions is seen as encouraging communalism
Conclusion II: The State wants to promote secularism in its policies
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
64. Statement: The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Conclusion I: There are several civil codes prevailing in the country
Conclusion II: A uniform civil code will be beneficial for the country
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
65. Statement: After China, India is the most populous country in the world. As per 2001 census report, total population of our country is 102.72 crores.
Conclusion I: China's population is more than 102.72 crores
Conclusion II: India needs to catch up fast in order to surpass China on the population front
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
66. Statement: Corruption, in our country is all pervasive and omnipresent. India is largest democracy of the world.
Conclusion I: Most of the people in India are corrupt
Conclusion II: Large democracies tend to be corrupt
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
67. Which share has shown the largest absolute range in price over the last year?
(a) Huver Co.
(b) Drebs Ltd
(c) Fevs Plc
(d) Fauvers
68. What was yesterday’s cost difference between 50 shares in Fevs plc and 100 shares in
Steapars?
(a) 164,726 Euros
(b) 172,577 Euros
(c) 164,045 Euros
(d) None of these
Steapars?
(a) 164,726 Euros
(b) 172,577 Euros
(c) 164,045 Euros
(d) None of these
69. Today’s Drebs Ltd share price represents a 40% increase on the price one month ago.
What was the price a month ago?
(a) 25.20 Euros
(b) 12.68 Euros
(c) 12.90 Euros
(d) 12.86 Euros
What was the price a month ago?
(a) 25.20 Euros
(b) 12.68 Euros
(c) 12.90 Euros
(d) 12.86 Euros
70. How much is the total annual dividend payable for 1,550 shares in Drebs Ltd?
(a) Cannot say
(b) 635 Euros
(c) 2,232 Euros
(d) 2,418 Euros
(a) Cannot say
(b) 635 Euros
(c) 2,232 Euros
(d) 2,418 Euros
71. If the exchange rate is 1.15 Euros to the £, what is today’s value of 250 Drebs Ltd shares (in £s)?
(a) £4,500
(b) £2,785
(c) £3,931
(d) £3,913
(a) £4,500
(b) £2,785
(c) £3,931
(d) £3,913
72. A field sales agent plans to travel on average 4,250 miles per month driving along motorways in her Xtam car. What is her projected average annual consumption of fuel (in gallons)?
(a) Cannot say
(b) 1,500
(c) 125
(d) 150
73. A car dealership has £600,000 to spend and wants to buy equal numbers of the Taber and Ursa cars. What is the largest number of each type of car that can be ordered?
(a) 27
(b) 48
(c) 21
(d) 22
74. What is the ratio of the cost of a Taber: Velvo: Xtam?
(a) 2:4:5
(b) 1:4:6
(c) 1:3:5
(d) 2:3:5
(a) Cannot say
(b) 1,500
(c) 125
(d) 150
73. A car dealership has £600,000 to spend and wants to buy equal numbers of the Taber and Ursa cars. What is the largest number of each type of car that can be ordered?
(a) 27
(b) 48
(c) 21
(d) 22
74. What is the ratio of the cost of a Taber: Velvo: Xtam?
(a) 2:4:5
(b) 1:4:6
(c) 1:3:5
(d) 2:3:5
75. A Tink car is taken on a test drive for 90 minutes around the city. If the average speed is 34 miles per hour how much petrol is consumed?
(a) 1.5 gallons
(b) 2.5 gallons
(c) 2 gallons
(d) 0.5 gallons
(a) 1.5 gallons
(b) 2.5 gallons
(c) 2 gallons
(d) 0.5 gallons
76. A family plans to spend a month driving around Scottish cities where the average cost of a gallon of petrol is £4.75. If the family drive 1,500 miles in their Velvo, what would be the family’s total petrol costs (to the nearest £)?
(a) £216.00
(b) £203.57
(c) £204.00
(d) None of these
77. Janmejay travels towards East. Mohan travels towards North. Biru and Raina travel in opposite direction. Tonny travels towards right of Krishna. Which of the following is definitely true?
(A) Janmejay and Biru travel in the opposite directions.
(B) Sachin travels towards West.
(C) Raina travels towards North
(D) Janmejay and Biru travel in the same direction.
78. You are on a trip to a remote island. The inhabitants of that village always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and other is always false. You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows:
John says,”I didn’t do it. Mathew didn’t do it”
Matthew says,”I didn’t do it. Krishna didn’t do it.” Krishna says,”I didn’t do it .I don’t know who did it.”
Who stole your boat?
(A) John
(B) Matthew
(C) Krishna
(D) None of them.
Direction: In each of the following (Q 79-85), read items A, B, C, and D, and then mark the one that best describes your interpersonal communication style.
(A) I frequently use courtesy words and phrases - “Please,” “Thank you,” “You’re welcome,” “I’m sorry.”
(B) I occasionally use these courtesy words and phrases.
(C) I never use these courtesy words and phrases.
(D) I hate using courtesy words because it is a culture of the high society.
79.
(A) While conversing, I hold my head still at all times.
(B) While conversing, I nod my head at appropriate times.
(C) While conversing, I nod my head constantly.
(D) While conversing, I hold my head still but my eyes respond at times.
80.
(A) If a co-worker has put on weight, I say nothing about it.
(B) If a co-worker has put on weight, I tell the person that he or she has changed in appearance.
(C) If a co-worker has put on weight, I tell him that he or she looks good
(D) If a co-worker has put on weight, I honestly tell the person that he or she looks fat.
81.
(A) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I note where I need to improve.
(B) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I get angry and defensive.
(C) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I deny the problem, make excuses, or plead ignorance.
(D) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I will not accept that
82.
(A) When I’m in a group, I tend to frown a lot.
(B) When I’m in a group, I tend to smile and use humor at appropriate times.
(C) When I’m in a group I tend to be serious.
(D) When I’m in a group I tend to use maximum humor.
83.
(A) When I discuss a topic, I tend to talk about and focus on positive (good) aspects.
(B) When I discuss a topic, I tend to talk about and focus on the negative (bad) aspects.
(C) When I discuss a topic, I tend to complain.
(D) When I discuss a topic, I tend to be too persuasive
84.
(A) When I first meet someone, I wait for the other person to make the introduction first.
(B) When I first meet someone, I introduce myself with a smile and offer a handshake.
(C) When I first meet someone, I hug the person.
(D) When I first meet someone, I wait for a third person to introduce me to him.
85.
(A) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I don’t comment about it.
(B) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I try to change the subject.
(C) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I try to relate to the person’s feelings and show sensitivity to his or her misfortune.
(D) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I advice him to be cool.
Directions (86-89): Given below is a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from theFacts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degrees of truth or false
Passage
Though, the states cultivate only 4.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, and they are of premium quality. And with mangoes become second most-consumed fruit in the world after grapes, the government has been trying to exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year proved successful.
86. Quality of mango is an important feature in exports.
(A) Definitely true (B) Probably true (C) Data inadequate (D) Definitely false
18. The state also exports good quality grapes.
(A) Definitely true (B) Probably true
(C) Data inadequate (D) Probably false
87. There are some problems in exporting the mangoes through sea route.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) Probably false
(D) Definitely false
88. Most of the other exports is through sea -route, which is cheaper.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) Data inadequate
(D) Probably false
89. The sate also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangos
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C)Data inadequate
(D) Definitely false
Directions (Q. 90-94): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
90.
Statements:
a. Some boxes are cranes.
b. Some cranes are hills.
c. All hills are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are boxes.
II. Some windows are cranes.
III. Some hills are boxes. “
I V. Some cranes are windows.
Codes
(A) None follows
(B)Only II follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) OnlyII &IV follow
91.
Statements:
a. Some boats are pictures.
b. All pictures are rats.
c. Some rats are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. All pictures are mountains.
II. Some rats are boats.
III. Some boats are mountains.
IV. Some mountains are pictures.
Codes
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only III and IV follow
92
Statements:
a. All buildings are rains
b. All papers are buildings
c. All dogs are papers
Conclusions:
I. All dogs are rains
II. Some papers are rains
III. Some rains are buildings
IV. Some rains are papers.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I & II follow
93.
Statements:
a. All pens are houses.
b.Some desks are houses.
c. All pencils are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are houses.
II. Spine desks are pencils.
III. Some pencils are pens.
IV. No desk is a pencil.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only either II or IV follows
(C) Only either II or III follows
(D) None of these
94.
Statements:
a. Some trains are roads.
b.No road is jungle.
c. All flowers are jungles.
Conclusions:
I. Some trains are flowers.
II. Some trains are jungles.
III. Some flowers are trains.
IV. No road is a flower.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Only II follows
Direction (Q. 95-101): A reputed Research Institute decided to select research assistant applying the following selection criteria:
The candidate must
(A) Be a post-graduate with minimum 60% marks.
(B) Have at least two research publications.
(C) Have studied statistics as one of the subjects at graduation.
(D) Have at least one year’s experience in teaching on research.
(E) Be not less than 25 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 16.7.2010.
However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions except:
(i) (B) above, but has done Ph.D., the case may be referred to the Chairman of the institute.
(ii) (A) above, but has secured minimum 50% marks at post-graduation and has also completed M.Phil, the may be referred to the Director.
(iii) (D) above, but has three years experience of working in industry, the case may be referred to the President.
(iv) (C) above, but has studied Research Methodology at graduate or post-graduate level, the case may be referred to the Executive Director.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in the each of the following cases, you have to take a decision. You are not to assume anything. The cases are being given to you as on 16.7.2010.
95. Radhika is a post-graduate having studied Research-Methodology as one of the paper at post-graduation. She secured 75% marks at post-graduation. She is working as Research Assistant in a private firm since June 2009 and has got three of her papers published during her tenure in the firm. Her date of birth is 25.4.1983.
(A) Refer to the Director
(B) Refer to the Executive Director
(C) Refer to the Chairman
(D) Not to be selected
96.John, a 27-year-old post-graduate in Statistics with 65% marks, is working as a lecturer in a degree college for past two years. Statistics was his main subject at B.Sc too. He is doing M.Phil. and plans to do Ph.D.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the Executive Director
(C) Refer to the President
(D) Not to be selected
97. Santosh Yadav has completed graduation with 67% marks, having Statistics as main subject. He has also completed postgraduation with 70% marks. His date of birth is 19.7.1984. He has registered for Ph.D in 2007 and has four research publications to his credit. He has been working as a lecturer since 2008.
(A) Refer to the President
(B) Refer to the Chairman
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) To be selected
98. Rama Shankar, a post-graduate with 55% marks in Commerce, has studied Economics and Statistics in graduation as well as postgraduation. He has also done M.Phil. and has more than five research paper publications.
He is teaching in the University since January 2008.His date of birth is 1981.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Not to be selected
99. Laxmi has done her graduation and postgraduation in Statistics with 70% and 78% marks respectively. She has registered for Ph.D. and has got around five research paper
publications to her credit. Her date of birth is 17.7.1980. She is working in a private company since 2006.
(A) Refer to the Director
(B) Refer to the Chairman,
(C) Refer to the President
(D) To be selected
100. Rita has completed 25 years recently, and has a bright academic career all through. She is B.Sc. in Statistics with distinction. She has done her post-graduation securing 70%
marks, - and has got her Ph.D very recently. She is working as a research fellow in a reputed academic institute since 2008.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Not to be selected
101. Nikita, a 28-year-old lady, is working as Assistant Teacher in a Junior College since June 2007. She has completed postgraduation in 2006, securing 68 % marks.
She regularly writes research papers and has eight to ten publications to her credit. Statistics was one of the papers studied by her at graduation.
(A) To be selected
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Data Inadequate
102.If Mumbai time is three hours ahead of Jerusalem time, what time would it be in Mumbai if a Jerusalem clock one hour behind the time shows 4 o’clock?
(A).1 o’clock
(B).6 o’clock
(C).7 o’clock
(D).8 o’clock
102. Most of the Rajeev family lives in Allahabad. Many of the people in Allahabad celebrate Diwali. Anuj is a member of the Jagadish family. Based on these facts, we:
can conclude that:
(A) Anuj lives in Allahabad.
(B) Anuj does not celebrate Diwali.
(C) All of the Jagadish celebrate Diwali.
(D) None of the above can be concluded.
103. Ram must use MG Road to get to work. Ram has a meeting today at 9:00 AM. If Ram misses the meeting, he probably will lose a major account. MG Road is closed all day due to repairs. Based on the above, we can conclude that:
(A) Ram will not be able to get to work.
(B) Ram will probably not be able to reschedule the meeting.
(C) Ram will lose a major account.
(D) None of the above can be concluded.
104. Mrs. Reena reports that she was in the elevator late yesterday evening after leaving her office on the 15th floor of a large office building. A man got on at the 12th floor, pulled her off the elevator, and assaulted her, stealing her purse. She believes that she has seen the man in elevators and hallways of the building before. She thinks that he works in the building. Study the following parts of Mrs. Reena’s description of the man. Which one would most useful in finding him, assuming that he is a regular occupant of the building?
(A) He had very bad breath.
(B) He was wearing a striped tie.
(C) He had a scar on his left cheek.
(D) He was carrying a blue backpack.
105. If C E J Q is coded as X V Q J , then B D I P will be coded as -
(A) YWRK
(B) YWKR
(C) YWSL
(D) XVQJ
106. In a given code SISTER is coded as 535301. UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How is RUSTIC written in the code?
(A) 633185
(B) 185336
(C) 363815
(D) 581363
107. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D?
(A) A is the granddaughter of D
(B) A is the grandson of D
(C) A is the daughter of D
(D) A is the sister of D
108. Chandan is taller than Ramu but shorter than Ram,Ramu is as tall as Vikash but taller than Bimlesh. Which of the following statements is definitely true for Ramu?
(A) Ramu is shorter than Bimlesh
(B) Ramu is the tallest
(C) Ramu is the shortest
(D) Ramu is taller than Bimlesh
109. What should come next in the following letter series?
B B C B C D B C D E B C D E F B C D E F G B C D E F G
(A) H
(B) B
(C) C
(D) DA
110. Consider the series given below:
4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96
The next term of the series is
(A) 24/3/96
(B) 25/3/96
(C) 26/3/96
(D) 27/3/96
111. Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is :
(A) Blue
(B) Violet
(C) Red
(D) Orange
112. On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and ‘sky’ are ‘sky’ ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’ and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink”?
(A) Sky
(B) Water
(C) Air
(D) Light
113. Which of these words is the odd one out?
(A) FURNISHED
(B) NUTSHELL
(C) REFRESHING
(D) ESTABLISHED
114. CAT, FERAL, SARDINE, PROACTIVE, What comes next in the above sequence?
(A) SIMULTANEOUS
(B) SUBORDINATE
(C) NEGOTIATION
(D) LEGISLATURE
115. 1313 × 137 =?
(A) 136
(B) 1319
(C) 1320
(D) 13-6
116. 808 ÷ 8 ÷ 0.4 =?
(A) 40.4
(B) 252.5
(C) 25.25
(D) 202.05
117. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(A) 4 kmph
(B) 6 kmph
(C) 8 kmph
(D) Data inadequate
118. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
35% of 1479 + 29% of 3210 =?
(A) 1600
(B) 1250
(C) 1300
(D) 1450
119. 39.8% if 400 + ?% of 350 = 230
(A) 15
(B)25
(C)18
(D) 20
120. The average marks obtained by Suresh in English and History is 55. The average marks obtained by him in English and Science is 65. What is the difference between the marks obtained by him in History and Science ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 20
(D) Data inadequate
121. The number of students at the university increased to 4620, compared to last year’s 4125, an absolute increase of 495 students. What is the percentage increase?
(A) 12%
(B) 13%
(C) 14%
(D) Data inadequate
122. The ratio of the present ages of Sita and her son is 5:2 respectively. Seven years hence, the ratio will be 2:1. What was the age of Sita when her son was born?
(A) 28 years
(B) 35 years
(C) 21 Years
(D)Cannot be determined
Directions (123-127): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of candidates from different locations appeared and passed in a competitive examination over the years
Number of candidates from different locations appeared and passed in a competitive examination over the years
Year Rural Semi-urban State-capitals Metropolises
App. Passed App. Passed App. Passed App. Passed
2004 1652 208 7894 2513 5054 1468 9538 3214
2005 1839 317 8562 2933 7164 3284 10158 4018
2006 2153 932 8139 2468 8258 3159 9695 3038
2007 5032 1798 9432 3528 8529 3628 11247 5158
2008 4915 1658 9784 4015 9015 4311 12518 6328
2009 5628 2392 9969 4263 1725 4526 13624 6419
123. For the candidates, from which of the following locations was there continuous increase both in appeared and passed ?
(A) Semi-urban
(B) State-capital
(C) State-capital & Rural
(D) None of above
124. In which of the following years was the percentage qualified to appeared candidates from Semiurban area the least ?
(A) 2005
(B)2008
(C) 2004
(D) 2006
125. Approximately, what was the percentage drop in the number of Semi-urban candidates appeared from 2005 to 2006 ?
(A) 5
(B)10
(C) 15
(D) 8
126. In 2007 the percentage of candidates qualified to appear was approximately 35 from which location?
(A) Rural
(B) Rural and Metropolises
(C) Semi-urban and Metropolises
(D) Rural and Semi-urban
127. The total number of candidates qualified from Rural in 2007 and Semi-urban in 2004 was exactly equal to the total number of candidates qualified from State-capitals in which of the following years?
(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2006
Directions (Questions 128-132): The bar-graph given below shows the percentage distribution of total expenditures of a Company under various expense heads during 2009-10. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow:
Percentage Distribution of Total Expenditures of a Company
128. The expenditures on the interest on loans is by what percent more than the expenditures on transport?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 40%
(D) 30%
129. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans?
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 8: 7
(C) 9: 7
(D). 13: 11
130. If the expenditure on advertisement is ` 2.10 crores then the difference between the expenditures on ‘transport and taxes. is: ‘
(A) Rs. 1.25 crores
(B) Rs. 95 lakhs
(C)Rs. 65 lakhs
(D)Rs. 35 lakhs
131. The total amount of expenditures of the Company is how many times the expenditure on research and development ?
(A) 27
(B) 20
(C)18
(D) 8
132. If the interest on loans amounted to Rs. 2.45 crores then the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, taxes. and
research and development is :
(A) Rs.7 crores
(B) Rs. 5.4 crores
(C) Rs. 4.2 crores
(D) Rs. 3 crores
Directions (Q 133-137) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements nUmberd I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and and :
Give Answer (A) : if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (B): if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (C): if date either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (D): if the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
133. On which day of the week was Anand born?
I.Anand’s sister was born on Wednesday.
II.Anand’s birthday was after his brother’s birthday but before his sister’s birthday.
134. Which code word stands for ‘good’ in the coded sentence ‘ sin co bye’ which means ‘He is Good’?
I. In the same code language ‘ co mot det’ means ‘ They are good ‘
II. In the same code language ‘sin mic bye’ means ‘ He is honest’.
135. How many books did Mathew purchase in Crossword Book Shop?
I Mathew wanted to purchase 70 books but only 39 books were available in that book stall.
II. Mathew selected 32 books but had money to purchase 23 books and asked for some credit to which the sales man of the book stall did not agree.
136. Sinha’s flat is on which floor of the five floor apartment?
I. His flat is exactly above Agarwal’s flat whose flat is exactly above Tiwari’s first floor flat.
II. Patel’s flat, which is adjacent to Sinha’s flat, is exactly below Rajesh’s flat, who is on fourth floor.
137. Who among P,Q,R,S and T teaches History?
I. Each one of them teaches only one subject. Q teaches Maths, while T teaches Science. P or R does not teach Geography. P or S does not teach English.
II. R and T are teachers of English and Science respectively and P is the teacher of Mathematics.
Directions (138-147): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Frustration is a global cancer. It has spared no country. In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “have-nots”. In other countries which are populated by ‘haves, frustration is among them also because they do “have”. As far as India is concerned its education system is breeding more and more frustration among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear about what can be done to make it more meaningful. Many reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for one reason or another. The authorities are not peddling the idea of autonomous colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards. They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their own courses, hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their own method of assessing students, students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they make out that such colleges will have free hand in nearly everything except granting degrees. In theory, all this sounds attractive enough. But there is little to show that the managements concerned are keen on such reforms. Even today, nothing prevents a college from inviting guest speakers on specialized subjects or holding courses in English for vernacular students. But not a single one of those who are now clamouring for autonomy has bothered to do so. It is no secret that colleges which may be ‘freed’ to an extent from university control are highly elitist: In Mumbai, for example, there is a big cultural gulf between city colleges and suburban colleges. If some of the former are now given a degree of autonomy, it will only heighten this disparity.
The answer to the vexed problem of declining standards in higher education does not lie in encouraging the growth of ‘model’ institutions but in improving overall standards. This is of course easier said than done, since more and younger people are seeking degrees the only solution, however unpalatable it may sound, is drastically to reduce the number of those who are admitted to colleges. Even through there is political pressure on many state governments to build new colleges and to reserve more seats for backward classes, it will sheer folly to expand such facilities recklessly without giving any thought to the quality of education imparted. If admissions are made far more selective, it will automatically reduce the number of entrants. This should apply particularly to new colleges, many o which are little more than degree factories. Only then can the authorities hoe to bring down the teacher-student ratio to manageable proportions. What is more, teachers should be given refresher courses every summer vacation to brush up their knowledge. Besides, if college managements increase the library budget it will help both staff and students a great deal. At the same time, however, it will be unfair to deny college education to thousands of young men and women unless employers stop insisting on degrees even for clerical jobs. For a start, why can’t the Government disqualify graduates from securing certain jobs-say, class III and IV posts? Once the degrees are de-linked from jobs, at least in some important departments, it will make many young people think twice before joining college.
138. The author’s chief concern seems to be :
(A) frustration among students
(B) spread of college education
(C) standards of education
(D)autonomy to colleges
139. The author’s attitude is -
(A) cynical
(B) Optimistic
(C) Critical
(D) Constructive
140. Which of the following to the passage would be the result of granting autonomy to some colleges?
(A) The teacher-student ratio will come down
(B) Disparity between city and suburban colleges will increase
(C) Colleges will multiply
(D) Some colleges would start selling degrees
141. Which of the following is the most significant feature of the scheme of autonomous colleges, according to the passage ?
(A) They can introduce new courses
(B) They can hold seminars
(C) They can evolve their method of assessment
(D) They can award degrees
142. The author does not believe that -
(A) colleges have the capacity to develop courses
(B) colleges have the expertise for assessment
(C) some colleges are only degree factories
(D) college managements are really keen on reforms
143. To which of the following does the author give precedence ?
(A) Increasing library facilities
(B) Holding refresher courses for teachers
(C) Abolishing reservation for backward classes
(D) Stopping opening of new colleges
144. Where has the author slipped while making suggestions ?
(A) the teacher-student ratio be brought down
(B) Improvement should not be restricted to select institutions.
(C) College teachers need refresher courses
(D) None of these
145. Frustration in the world is a result of which of the following ?
(1) Large number of ‘Haves
(2) Large number of ‘Have-nots’
(3) cancerous cells
Codes
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1 and 2 only
146. Which of the following is the main difficulty, according to the passage, in the way of improving standards?
(A) Paucity of library facilities
(B) Paucity of funds
(C) Ever increasing number of young men wanting degrees
(D) Grant of autonomy to colleges
147. How, according to the passage, can the number of students taking college education be reduced?
(A) By making selective admissions
(B) By reducing the number of colleges
(C) By abolishing the reservation of seats for backward classes
(D) By discouraging the founding of model institutions
148. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of 3x and 12z? Which of the information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?
(1) x + 4z = 20
(2) x + z = 8
Codes
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
(a) £216.00
(b) £203.57
(c) £204.00
(d) None of these
77. Janmejay travels towards East. Mohan travels towards North. Biru and Raina travel in opposite direction. Tonny travels towards right of Krishna. Which of the following is definitely true?
(A) Janmejay and Biru travel in the opposite directions.
(B) Sachin travels towards West.
(C) Raina travels towards North
(D) Janmejay and Biru travel in the same direction.
78. You are on a trip to a remote island. The inhabitants of that village always answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and other is always false. You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows:
John says,”I didn’t do it. Mathew didn’t do it”
Matthew says,”I didn’t do it. Krishna didn’t do it.” Krishna says,”I didn’t do it .I don’t know who did it.”
Who stole your boat?
(A) John
(B) Matthew
(C) Krishna
(D) None of them.
Direction: In each of the following (Q 79-85), read items A, B, C, and D, and then mark the one that best describes your interpersonal communication style.
(A) I frequently use courtesy words and phrases - “Please,” “Thank you,” “You’re welcome,” “I’m sorry.”
(B) I occasionally use these courtesy words and phrases.
(C) I never use these courtesy words and phrases.
(D) I hate using courtesy words because it is a culture of the high society.
79.
(A) While conversing, I hold my head still at all times.
(B) While conversing, I nod my head at appropriate times.
(C) While conversing, I nod my head constantly.
(D) While conversing, I hold my head still but my eyes respond at times.
80.
(A) If a co-worker has put on weight, I say nothing about it.
(B) If a co-worker has put on weight, I tell the person that he or she has changed in appearance.
(C) If a co-worker has put on weight, I tell him that he or she looks good
(D) If a co-worker has put on weight, I honestly tell the person that he or she looks fat.
81.
(A) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I note where I need to improve.
(B) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I get angry and defensive.
(C) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I deny the problem, make excuses, or plead ignorance.
(D) When I receive unfavorable feedback, I will not accept that
82.
(A) When I’m in a group, I tend to frown a lot.
(B) When I’m in a group, I tend to smile and use humor at appropriate times.
(C) When I’m in a group I tend to be serious.
(D) When I’m in a group I tend to use maximum humor.
83.
(A) When I discuss a topic, I tend to talk about and focus on positive (good) aspects.
(B) When I discuss a topic, I tend to talk about and focus on the negative (bad) aspects.
(C) When I discuss a topic, I tend to complain.
(D) When I discuss a topic, I tend to be too persuasive
84.
(A) When I first meet someone, I wait for the other person to make the introduction first.
(B) When I first meet someone, I introduce myself with a smile and offer a handshake.
(C) When I first meet someone, I hug the person.
(D) When I first meet someone, I wait for a third person to introduce me to him.
85.
(A) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I don’t comment about it.
(B) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I try to change the subject.
(C) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I try to relate to the person’s feelings and show sensitivity to his or her misfortune.
(D) When someone talks about an unfortunate or sad experience, I advice him to be cool.
Directions (86-89): Given below is a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from theFacts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degrees of truth or false
Passage
Though, the states cultivate only 4.2 lakh tonnes of mangoes, and they are of premium quality. And with mangoes become second most-consumed fruit in the world after grapes, the government has been trying to exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year proved successful.
86. Quality of mango is an important feature in exports.
(A) Definitely true (B) Probably true (C) Data inadequate (D) Definitely false
18. The state also exports good quality grapes.
(A) Definitely true (B) Probably true
(C) Data inadequate (D) Probably false
87. There are some problems in exporting the mangoes through sea route.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) Probably false
(D) Definitely false
88. Most of the other exports is through sea -route, which is cheaper.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) Data inadequate
(D) Probably false
89. The sate also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangos
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C)Data inadequate
(D) Definitely false
Directions (Q. 90-94): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
90.
Statements:
a. Some boxes are cranes.
b. Some cranes are hills.
c. All hills are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are boxes.
II. Some windows are cranes.
III. Some hills are boxes. “
I V. Some cranes are windows.
Codes
(A) None follows
(B)Only II follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) OnlyII &IV follow
91.
Statements:
a. Some boats are pictures.
b. All pictures are rats.
c. Some rats are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. All pictures are mountains.
II. Some rats are boats.
III. Some boats are mountains.
IV. Some mountains are pictures.
Codes
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only III and IV follow
92
Statements:
a. All buildings are rains
b. All papers are buildings
c. All dogs are papers
Conclusions:
I. All dogs are rains
II. Some papers are rains
III. Some rains are buildings
IV. Some rains are papers.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I & II follow
93.
Statements:
a. All pens are houses.
b.Some desks are houses.
c. All pencils are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some pencils are houses.
II. Spine desks are pencils.
III. Some pencils are pens.
IV. No desk is a pencil.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only either II or IV follows
(C) Only either II or III follows
(D) None of these
94.
Statements:
a. Some trains are roads.
b.No road is jungle.
c. All flowers are jungles.
Conclusions:
I. Some trains are flowers.
II. Some trains are jungles.
III. Some flowers are trains.
IV. No road is a flower.
Codes
(A) All follow
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Only II follows
Direction (Q. 95-101): A reputed Research Institute decided to select research assistant applying the following selection criteria:
The candidate must
(A) Be a post-graduate with minimum 60% marks.
(B) Have at least two research publications.
(C) Have studied statistics as one of the subjects at graduation.
(D) Have at least one year’s experience in teaching on research.
(E) Be not less than 25 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 16.7.2010.
However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions except:
(i) (B) above, but has done Ph.D., the case may be referred to the Chairman of the institute.
(ii) (A) above, but has secured minimum 50% marks at post-graduation and has also completed M.Phil, the may be referred to the Director.
(iii) (D) above, but has three years experience of working in industry, the case may be referred to the President.
(iv) (C) above, but has studied Research Methodology at graduate or post-graduate level, the case may be referred to the Executive Director.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in the each of the following cases, you have to take a decision. You are not to assume anything. The cases are being given to you as on 16.7.2010.
95. Radhika is a post-graduate having studied Research-Methodology as one of the paper at post-graduation. She secured 75% marks at post-graduation. She is working as Research Assistant in a private firm since June 2009 and has got three of her papers published during her tenure in the firm. Her date of birth is 25.4.1983.
(A) Refer to the Director
(B) Refer to the Executive Director
(C) Refer to the Chairman
(D) Not to be selected
96.John, a 27-year-old post-graduate in Statistics with 65% marks, is working as a lecturer in a degree college for past two years. Statistics was his main subject at B.Sc too. He is doing M.Phil. and plans to do Ph.D.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the Executive Director
(C) Refer to the President
(D) Not to be selected
97. Santosh Yadav has completed graduation with 67% marks, having Statistics as main subject. He has also completed postgraduation with 70% marks. His date of birth is 19.7.1984. He has registered for Ph.D in 2007 and has four research publications to his credit. He has been working as a lecturer since 2008.
(A) Refer to the President
(B) Refer to the Chairman
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) To be selected
98. Rama Shankar, a post-graduate with 55% marks in Commerce, has studied Economics and Statistics in graduation as well as postgraduation. He has also done M.Phil. and has more than five research paper publications.
He is teaching in the University since January 2008.His date of birth is 1981.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Not to be selected
99. Laxmi has done her graduation and postgraduation in Statistics with 70% and 78% marks respectively. She has registered for Ph.D. and has got around five research paper
publications to her credit. Her date of birth is 17.7.1980. She is working in a private company since 2006.
(A) Refer to the Director
(B) Refer to the Chairman,
(C) Refer to the President
(D) To be selected
100. Rita has completed 25 years recently, and has a bright academic career all through. She is B.Sc. in Statistics with distinction. She has done her post-graduation securing 70%
marks, - and has got her Ph.D very recently. She is working as a research fellow in a reputed academic institute since 2008.
(A) Refer to the Chairman
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Not to be selected
101. Nikita, a 28-year-old lady, is working as Assistant Teacher in a Junior College since June 2007. She has completed postgraduation in 2006, securing 68 % marks.
She regularly writes research papers and has eight to ten publications to her credit. Statistics was one of the papers studied by her at graduation.
(A) To be selected
(B) Refer to the President
(C) Refer to the Director
(D) Data Inadequate
102.If Mumbai time is three hours ahead of Jerusalem time, what time would it be in Mumbai if a Jerusalem clock one hour behind the time shows 4 o’clock?
(A).1 o’clock
(B).6 o’clock
(C).7 o’clock
(D).8 o’clock
102. Most of the Rajeev family lives in Allahabad. Many of the people in Allahabad celebrate Diwali. Anuj is a member of the Jagadish family. Based on these facts, we:
can conclude that:
(A) Anuj lives in Allahabad.
(B) Anuj does not celebrate Diwali.
(C) All of the Jagadish celebrate Diwali.
(D) None of the above can be concluded.
103. Ram must use MG Road to get to work. Ram has a meeting today at 9:00 AM. If Ram misses the meeting, he probably will lose a major account. MG Road is closed all day due to repairs. Based on the above, we can conclude that:
(A) Ram will not be able to get to work.
(B) Ram will probably not be able to reschedule the meeting.
(C) Ram will lose a major account.
(D) None of the above can be concluded.
104. Mrs. Reena reports that she was in the elevator late yesterday evening after leaving her office on the 15th floor of a large office building. A man got on at the 12th floor, pulled her off the elevator, and assaulted her, stealing her purse. She believes that she has seen the man in elevators and hallways of the building before. She thinks that he works in the building. Study the following parts of Mrs. Reena’s description of the man. Which one would most useful in finding him, assuming that he is a regular occupant of the building?
(A) He had very bad breath.
(B) He was wearing a striped tie.
(C) He had a scar on his left cheek.
(D) He was carrying a blue backpack.
105. If C E J Q is coded as X V Q J , then B D I P will be coded as -
(A) YWRK
(B) YWKR
(C) YWSL
(D) XVQJ
106. In a given code SISTER is coded as 535301. UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How is RUSTIC written in the code?
(A) 633185
(B) 185336
(C) 363815
(D) 581363
107. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D?
(A) A is the granddaughter of D
(B) A is the grandson of D
(C) A is the daughter of D
(D) A is the sister of D
108. Chandan is taller than Ramu but shorter than Ram,Ramu is as tall as Vikash but taller than Bimlesh. Which of the following statements is definitely true for Ramu?
(A) Ramu is shorter than Bimlesh
(B) Ramu is the tallest
(C) Ramu is the shortest
(D) Ramu is taller than Bimlesh
109. What should come next in the following letter series?
B B C B C D B C D E B C D E F B C D E F G B C D E F G
(A) H
(B) B
(C) C
(D) DA
110. Consider the series given below:
4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96
The next term of the series is
(A) 24/3/96
(B) 25/3/96
(C) 26/3/96
(D) 27/3/96
111. Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is :
(A) Blue
(B) Violet
(C) Red
(D) Orange
112. On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and ‘sky’ are ‘sky’ ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’ and ‘earth’ respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink”?
(A) Sky
(B) Water
(C) Air
(D) Light
113. Which of these words is the odd one out?
(A) FURNISHED
(B) NUTSHELL
(C) REFRESHING
(D) ESTABLISHED
114. CAT, FERAL, SARDINE, PROACTIVE, What comes next in the above sequence?
(A) SIMULTANEOUS
(B) SUBORDINATE
(C) NEGOTIATION
(D) LEGISLATURE
115. 1313 × 137 =?
(A) 136
(B) 1319
(C) 1320
(D) 13-6
116. 808 ÷ 8 ÷ 0.4 =?
(A) 40.4
(B) 252.5
(C) 25.25
(D) 202.05
117. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(A) 4 kmph
(B) 6 kmph
(C) 8 kmph
(D) Data inadequate
118. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
35% of 1479 + 29% of 3210 =?
(A) 1600
(B) 1250
(C) 1300
(D) 1450
119. 39.8% if 400 + ?% of 350 = 230
(A) 15
(B)25
(C)18
(D) 20
120. The average marks obtained by Suresh in English and History is 55. The average marks obtained by him in English and Science is 65. What is the difference between the marks obtained by him in History and Science ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 20
(D) Data inadequate
121. The number of students at the university increased to 4620, compared to last year’s 4125, an absolute increase of 495 students. What is the percentage increase?
(A) 12%
(B) 13%
(C) 14%
(D) Data inadequate
122. The ratio of the present ages of Sita and her son is 5:2 respectively. Seven years hence, the ratio will be 2:1. What was the age of Sita when her son was born?
(A) 28 years
(B) 35 years
(C) 21 Years
(D)Cannot be determined
Directions (123-127): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Number of candidates from different locations appeared and passed in a competitive examination over the years
Number of candidates from different locations appeared and passed in a competitive examination over the years
Year Rural Semi-urban State-capitals Metropolises
App. Passed App. Passed App. Passed App. Passed
2004 1652 208 7894 2513 5054 1468 9538 3214
2005 1839 317 8562 2933 7164 3284 10158 4018
2006 2153 932 8139 2468 8258 3159 9695 3038
2007 5032 1798 9432 3528 8529 3628 11247 5158
2008 4915 1658 9784 4015 9015 4311 12518 6328
2009 5628 2392 9969 4263 1725 4526 13624 6419
123. For the candidates, from which of the following locations was there continuous increase both in appeared and passed ?
(A) Semi-urban
(B) State-capital
(C) State-capital & Rural
(D) None of above
124. In which of the following years was the percentage qualified to appeared candidates from Semiurban area the least ?
(A) 2005
(B)2008
(C) 2004
(D) 2006
125. Approximately, what was the percentage drop in the number of Semi-urban candidates appeared from 2005 to 2006 ?
(A) 5
(B)10
(C) 15
(D) 8
126. In 2007 the percentage of candidates qualified to appear was approximately 35 from which location?
(A) Rural
(B) Rural and Metropolises
(C) Semi-urban and Metropolises
(D) Rural and Semi-urban
127. The total number of candidates qualified from Rural in 2007 and Semi-urban in 2004 was exactly equal to the total number of candidates qualified from State-capitals in which of the following years?
(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2006
Directions (Questions 128-132): The bar-graph given below shows the percentage distribution of total expenditures of a Company under various expense heads during 2009-10. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow:
Percentage Distribution of Total Expenditures of a Company
128. The expenditures on the interest on loans is by what percent more than the expenditures on transport?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 40%
(D) 30%
129. What is the ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans?
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 8: 7
(C) 9: 7
(D). 13: 11
130. If the expenditure on advertisement is ` 2.10 crores then the difference between the expenditures on ‘transport and taxes. is: ‘
(A) Rs. 1.25 crores
(B) Rs. 95 lakhs
(C)Rs. 65 lakhs
(D)Rs. 35 lakhs
131. The total amount of expenditures of the Company is how many times the expenditure on research and development ?
(A) 27
(B) 20
(C)18
(D) 8
132. If the interest on loans amounted to Rs. 2.45 crores then the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, taxes. and
research and development is :
(A) Rs.7 crores
(B) Rs. 5.4 crores
(C) Rs. 4.2 crores
(D) Rs. 3 crores
Directions (Q 133-137) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements nUmberd I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and and :
Give Answer (A) : if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (B): if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (C): if date either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer (D): if the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
133. On which day of the week was Anand born?
I.Anand’s sister was born on Wednesday.
II.Anand’s birthday was after his brother’s birthday but before his sister’s birthday.
134. Which code word stands for ‘good’ in the coded sentence ‘ sin co bye’ which means ‘He is Good’?
I. In the same code language ‘ co mot det’ means ‘ They are good ‘
II. In the same code language ‘sin mic bye’ means ‘ He is honest’.
135. How many books did Mathew purchase in Crossword Book Shop?
I Mathew wanted to purchase 70 books but only 39 books were available in that book stall.
II. Mathew selected 32 books but had money to purchase 23 books and asked for some credit to which the sales man of the book stall did not agree.
136. Sinha’s flat is on which floor of the five floor apartment?
I. His flat is exactly above Agarwal’s flat whose flat is exactly above Tiwari’s first floor flat.
II. Patel’s flat, which is adjacent to Sinha’s flat, is exactly below Rajesh’s flat, who is on fourth floor.
137. Who among P,Q,R,S and T teaches History?
I. Each one of them teaches only one subject. Q teaches Maths, while T teaches Science. P or R does not teach Geography. P or S does not teach English.
II. R and T are teachers of English and Science respectively and P is the teacher of Mathematics.
Directions (138-147): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Frustration is a global cancer. It has spared no country. In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “have-nots”. In other countries which are populated by ‘haves, frustration is among them also because they do “have”. As far as India is concerned its education system is breeding more and more frustration among both students and teachers. And yet no one seems too clear about what can be done to make it more meaningful. Many reforms have been discussed at length but have come to nothing for one reason or another. The authorities are not peddling the idea of autonomous colleges as a means of toning up teaching standards. They argue that by allowing certain colleges to introduce their own courses, hold seminars, and above all, to evolve their own method of assessing students, students will get a far better deal. Indeed, they make out that such colleges will have free hand in nearly everything except granting degrees. In theory, all this sounds attractive enough. But there is little to show that the managements concerned are keen on such reforms. Even today, nothing prevents a college from inviting guest speakers on specialized subjects or holding courses in English for vernacular students. But not a single one of those who are now clamouring for autonomy has bothered to do so. It is no secret that colleges which may be ‘freed’ to an extent from university control are highly elitist: In Mumbai, for example, there is a big cultural gulf between city colleges and suburban colleges. If some of the former are now given a degree of autonomy, it will only heighten this disparity.
The answer to the vexed problem of declining standards in higher education does not lie in encouraging the growth of ‘model’ institutions but in improving overall standards. This is of course easier said than done, since more and younger people are seeking degrees the only solution, however unpalatable it may sound, is drastically to reduce the number of those who are admitted to colleges. Even through there is political pressure on many state governments to build new colleges and to reserve more seats for backward classes, it will sheer folly to expand such facilities recklessly without giving any thought to the quality of education imparted. If admissions are made far more selective, it will automatically reduce the number of entrants. This should apply particularly to new colleges, many o which are little more than degree factories. Only then can the authorities hoe to bring down the teacher-student ratio to manageable proportions. What is more, teachers should be given refresher courses every summer vacation to brush up their knowledge. Besides, if college managements increase the library budget it will help both staff and students a great deal. At the same time, however, it will be unfair to deny college education to thousands of young men and women unless employers stop insisting on degrees even for clerical jobs. For a start, why can’t the Government disqualify graduates from securing certain jobs-say, class III and IV posts? Once the degrees are de-linked from jobs, at least in some important departments, it will make many young people think twice before joining college.
138. The author’s chief concern seems to be :
(A) frustration among students
(B) spread of college education
(C) standards of education
(D)autonomy to colleges
139. The author’s attitude is -
(A) cynical
(B) Optimistic
(C) Critical
(D) Constructive
140. Which of the following to the passage would be the result of granting autonomy to some colleges?
(A) The teacher-student ratio will come down
(B) Disparity between city and suburban colleges will increase
(C) Colleges will multiply
(D) Some colleges would start selling degrees
141. Which of the following is the most significant feature of the scheme of autonomous colleges, according to the passage ?
(A) They can introduce new courses
(B) They can hold seminars
(C) They can evolve their method of assessment
(D) They can award degrees
142. The author does not believe that -
(A) colleges have the capacity to develop courses
(B) colleges have the expertise for assessment
(C) some colleges are only degree factories
(D) college managements are really keen on reforms
143. To which of the following does the author give precedence ?
(A) Increasing library facilities
(B) Holding refresher courses for teachers
(C) Abolishing reservation for backward classes
(D) Stopping opening of new colleges
144. Where has the author slipped while making suggestions ?
(A) the teacher-student ratio be brought down
(B) Improvement should not be restricted to select institutions.
(C) College teachers need refresher courses
(D) None of these
145. Frustration in the world is a result of which of the following ?
(1) Large number of ‘Haves
(2) Large number of ‘Have-nots’
(3) cancerous cells
Codes
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1 and 2 only
146. Which of the following is the main difficulty, according to the passage, in the way of improving standards?
(A) Paucity of library facilities
(B) Paucity of funds
(C) Ever increasing number of young men wanting degrees
(D) Grant of autonomy to colleges
147. How, according to the passage, can the number of students taking college education be reduced?
(A) By making selective admissions
(B) By reducing the number of colleges
(C) By abolishing the reservation of seats for backward classes
(D) By discouraging the founding of model institutions
148. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of 3x and 12z? Which of the information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?
(1) x + 4z = 20
(2) x + z = 8
Codes
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
149. A coin is tossed successively three times. Find the probability of getting exactly one head or two heads.
(a) 1/4
(b) 3/4
(c) 3/5
(d) 3/8
(a) 1/4
(b) 3/4
(c) 3/5
(d) 3/8
150. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a multiple of ‘3’ as the sum
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2
(a) 1/6
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2
FRIDAY, MAY 20, 2011
CSAT SAMPLE PAPER ANALYSIS
The Pattern
Unlike previous years, from 2011, the UPSC civil services prelims exam will not have any optional paper. Each student will now appear for the same two papers. There will be two 2-hour exams, Paper-I and Paper-II. Paper I will be similar to the General Studies Paper of the past, with minor additions and deletions to the syllabus. Paper-II is the new kid on the block. Both the papers will carry 200 marks and there will be negative marking.
The notification and the subsequent ones, are silent on the number of questions, marking scheme etc. There are mixed reactions to this- whether there will be subsections in the paper, or there will be differential marking. It will be futile to make a final call. Trying to second guess the UPSC can prove dangerous, hence, aspirants are advised to prepare for all kinds of scenarios.
Paper-II (CSAT) tests the student on general aptitude similar to various aptitude tests. The only major difference being the section on decision making and Interpersonal skills and Communication.
The Syllabus
Paper I - (200 marks) Duration: Two hours
• Current events of national and international importance
• History of India and Indian National Movement
• Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic geography of India and the World.
• Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
• Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
• General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change - that do not require subject specialization
• General Science.
Paper II- (200 marks) Duration: Two hours
• Comprehension
• Interpersonal skills including communication skills;
• Logical reasoning and analytical ability
• Decision making and problem solving
• General mental ability
• Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. -Class X level)
• English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level).
• Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation thereof in the question paper.
• The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.
When check the GS syllabus, the major change as such is the introduction of environment, ecology, biodiversity and the removal of general mental ability. The general mental ability portion has now been allocated to the CSAT.
Although, the introduction of environment, ecology, climate change, biodiversity and sustainable development seems to suggest that these are new areas, the questions related to these topics have been asked in the past. This merely suggests that these areas may carry more weightage than they used to do in the previous years. Thus, one needs to have a slightly tweaked approach towards the preparation for the GS paper.
For the CSAT, everything except general mental ability will be new to CS aspirants.
The Sample Paper
UPSC released a sample paper then revised with more questions. This sample paper is the only real source to understand the kind of questions expected this year. In this section analyse each and every question in the sample paper.
Paper-I GS
Question 1
It is based on the Simon Commision and its recommendations. The Learning Objective(LO) is History of India and Indian National Movement. The question requires a through knowledge of the Simon Commision's recommendations etc. It is along the patterns of previous years.
We can expect similar questions about other commisions and reports.
Question 2
It is based on the rainfall data of a geographic region. This question was asked in CS prelims in 2010. So, it is along the patterns of previous years. The LO is India and World Geography
Question 3
It is based on jatropha and other plants used to make bio-diesel. This question was asked in CS prelims in 2010. So, it is along the patterns of previous years. The LO is Environment, Bio-diversity and Climate change.
Question 4
It is based on Potato and Microwave. This question was asked in CS Prelims in 2010. So, it is along the patterns of previous years. The LO is General Science.
Question 5
It is based on Banks and Financial Inclusion. This question was asked in CS Prelims in 2010. So, it is along the patterns of Previous years. The LO is Economic and Social Development.
Question 6
It is based on Fiscal Stimulus. This question was asked in CS Prelims in 2010. So, it is along the patterns of Previous years. The LO is Economic and Social Development.
Question 7
It is based on Pollution and Carbon Monoxide. The question is understanding and application based. The effect of pollution on environment as well humans needs to fully understood. How certain pollutants affect the humans needs to be known.
Although UPSC has asked similar questions in the past, the focus has shifted from general science based direct questions to application based environment questions. The LO of environment and climate change is very important for this year. Be aware of all the major pollutants and how they affect us.
Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Acid rain, Smog etc should be well understood.
Question 8
It is based on global warming. The question requires real understanding of the concept of global and the challenges. The question asks what limits India's fight against global warming. It is certainly not a direct question. The difficulty in application based question is you need to know the concept in depth and just a superficial knowledge won't help.
It requires which methods are being used, why a certain method is preferred over others etc. This question again signifies the importance of the LO of Environment and Climate change.
Question 9
It is based on the Constiution and Polity. The question asks about the National Social Assistance Program. The question focusses on what the student understands from fundamental rights, fundamental duties and directive principles of state policy. The question tests whether the student is able to fully and clearly distinguish between the three and understands when each of the three come into picture.
It requires not just the knowledge of the law but how and when it is applied. The focus is again on application and not just mere articles of the constitution. The LO is Indian Polity and Governance.
Question 10
It is based on the Constitution and Polity. The question asks about the Lok Adalats. The question focusses on the understanding of the Constitution of India. The question is more direct and needs teh student to know the jurisdiction of the Lok Adalats.
The LO is Indian Polity and Governance.
Question 11
It is based on deflation. The question focusses on the economic term in news. The question requires proper understanding of general economic terms in news. Similar terms may be expected this year. Some of the terms more popular these days are Quantitative Easing, Fiscal Responsibility, MicroFinance Bill, Malegam Commitee, etc.
The LO is Economic and Social Development. The student is expected to be well aware of various aspects of the Budget and the Economic Survey.
Paper-II CSAT
Questions 1-3 are based on Comprehension. The passage is on Indian contemporary issue and not very difficult to comprehend. The questions however are inferential where the ability to decipher the hidden meaning comes to the fore. With enough practice and extensive reading, scoring on these questions shouldn't pose too much trouble to a serious candidate.
Question 4 is based on Critical Reasoning – arriving at the conclusion. This is one area which requires ample practice on all the differnet question types – syllogisms, assumptions, implicit statements , inferences, stregthening-weakening, analogous to the argument etc.
Q 8 is a cross-over of Critical Reasoning and Comprehension with a dash of Vocabulary sprinkled on it. Practice on reasoning based questions coupled with an ability to eliminate the incorrect options will come to the fore. These questions are deceptive and will require enough attention and respect to sail through.
The latest addition to the UPSC sample questions list were Questions 9 and 10. They are a a combination of Decison Making and Problem solving questions with a hint of communicaiton inserted. One's ability to take mature and timely decisions with a balanced approach focussing on the best outcomes is tested here. Enough practice with Decision making & Problem Solving as well as Interpersonal skills and communicaiton should help one get a good grip on these question types.
Question 5 is a Data Sufficiency question, based on arrangement of people. Data sufficiency questions These questions can be a part of any of the following sections:
General Mental Ability
Basic Numeracy
Data Interpretation
Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability
is necessary to understand here that solving the question and reaching a solution is not expected. The candidate only needs to judge whether the given data is sufficient or not. These type of questions are tricky questions and a novice could easily mark a wrong answer even for a very easy question. A lot of practice is recommended for these questions.
Question 6, which is a basic question on indices, indicates that the CSAT paper will have questions on Arithmetic. Arithmetic though is easy appears to be tough simply because it is taught at the school level and candidates are generally not in touch with the topics it covers. Again, practice plays a very important role here.
Question 7 is a simple question on percentages disguised as a question based on pie charts. The question is complete even without the pie charts. The pie charts are just a distractor – a student not comfortable with different types of charts that are covered under Data Interpretation might needlessly end up not attempting this question at all.
In general, sound understanding of fundamentals and familiarity with question types that aptitude exams generally test will be of prime importance for a candidate who wishes to do well.
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