Logic and Reasoning


World Children Report, 2012

UNICEF’s Flagship State of the World Children Report 2012, says urbanisation is leaving billions of children in cities across the world excluded from vital services. More than 50 per cent of the world’s population today lives in urban areas. Of these, one billion are children, devoid of any semblance of decent living.

In India, 377 million live in the urban centers. Out of them, 97 million are urban poor (the lowest 25 per cent section) as per Census 2011 data. An estimated 535 million will live in towns by 2026. This would be 40 per cent of India’s population.

The differential between urban non poor and urban poor children is huge. For instance, more urban poor children below five are underweight than rural children in the same group. While 47 per cent urban poor kids are underweight, 46 per cent rural are underweight as against 33 per cent urban children.

There is a shocking, 13-point difference in the Infant Mortality Rates among urban non poor and urban poor children; 54 per cent more infants die in urban poor families.

That’s not all, 20 per cent more children are anaemic among urban poor than among the urban non poor and one in every two children among the urban poor is underweight.

Even on health services, the access of urban poor is shockingly low with one in two women managing safe deliveries and 6 in every 10 being anaemic (more than in rural areas).

THURSDAY, JUNE 9, 2011

Syndicate Bank PO Question Paper 2010

1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to                                            
1) UY
2) UX
3) UZ
4) VY
5) None of these

Ans. 1 (2)

2.  Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest?
1) P
2) T
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans. 2 (3)

3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is the girl related to Nidhi?
1) Sister
2) Self
3) Cousin sister
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.3 (4)

4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
1) 8%o51
2) 85%8
3) 8@51
4) 8%31
5) None of these

Ans.4 (1) 

5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language?
1) sa
2) na
3) sa or na
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.5 (3)

6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that code?
1) TBODMNHS
2) DOBTMNHS
3) TBODSHNM
4) DOBTOPJU
5) None of these

Ans.6 (2)

7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 1
2) 5
3) 7
4) 9
5) None of these

Ans.7 (1)     

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters   between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Ans. 8 (3)

9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Ans. 9 (2) 

10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Ans.10 (3)

11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row?
1) Eleventh
2) Tenth 
3) Twelfth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.11 (1)   

Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organised in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organised on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday.

12. On which day was play B organised?
1) Thursday
2) Friday
3) Wednesday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.12 (2)
13. On which day was no play organised?
1) Monday
2) Wednesday
3) Thursday
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.13 (1)

14. Which play was organised on Wednesday?
1) A
2) C
3) D
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.14 (3)

15.  If ‘÷’ means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x’ and '-' means '÷', then 24 -4÷6 x3+4 =?
1) 36
2) 24
3) 8
4) 4
5) None of these

Ans.15 (5)

16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498
1) 7
2) 1
3) 2
4) 5
5) None of these

Ans.16 (2)

17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) Q
2) K
3) P
4) B
5) None of these

Ans.17 (3)

18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's
Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday?
1) Twentieth
2) Nineteenth
3) Eighteenth
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

Ans.18 (5)

Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following
information and answer the questions given below:
(i) 'P÷ Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.

19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of  T?
1) M÷K+T
2) M x K+T
3) M x K-T
4) M ÷ K - T
5) None of these

Ans.19 (4)

20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T?
1) H +J+T
2) T x K + H
3) H +J x T
4) H - J + T
5) None of these

Ans.20 (1)

Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
832    965     748     259     614

21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
1) 2
2) 5
3) 8
4) 9
5) 4

Ans. 21 (5)

22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number?
1) 11
2) 15
3) 10
4) 7
5) None of these

Ans.22 (2)

23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
1) 5
2) 1
3) 6
4) 4
5) 3

Ans.23 (1)

24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
1) 8
2) 6
3) 7
4) 5
5) None of these

Ans.24 (5)

25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
1) 6
2) 4
3) 1
4) 7
5) None of these

Ans.25 (3)

Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

26. Statements:All stones are poles.
                       All poles are desks.
                       Some desks are nets.
                       All nets are days.
Conclusions:     I. Some nets are stones.
                       II.Some desks are stones.
                       III.Some days are desks.

1) Only I and II follow
2) Only I and III follow
3) Only II and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these

Ans.26 (3)

27. Statements:  Some months are weeks.
                         Some weeks are years.
                         All years are buses.
                         All buses are trains.
      Conclusions:  I. Some trains are weeks.
                         II. Some buses are weeks.
                         III.Some trains are months.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All, I, II and III follow
5) None of these

Ans.27 (1)

28. Statements:  Some stations are rails.
                         All rails are rivers.
                         All rivers are papers.
                         Some papers are cards.
     Conclusions:   I. Some cards are stations.
                         II.Some rivers are stations.
                         III. Some cards are rivers.
1) Norte follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only II and III follow

Ans.28 (3)

29. Statements: All windows are roofs.
                        All roofs are glasses.
                        Some glasses are plates.
                        Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:      I. Some plates are windows.
                       II. Some glasses are windows.
                       III. Some carpets are roofs.
1) None follows
2) Only I follows
3) Only II follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only I and II follow

Ans.29 (3)

30. Statements:  All trees are jungles.
                         All jungles are houses.
                         All houses are buildings.
                         All buildings are villages.
      Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses.
                         II. Some buildings are jungles.
                         III. Some houses are trees.
1) Only I and II follow
2) Only II and III follow
3) Only I and III follow
4) All I, II and III follow
5) None of these

Ans.30 (4)

31. Statements: Some books are calendars.
                        No calendar is a paper.
                        All papers are pencils.
                        Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:  I. Some chairs are books.
                   II. No chair is a book.
                   III. Some pencils are calendars.
1) None follows
2) Only either I or II follows
3) Only either I or II and III follow
4) Only III follows
5) Only n follows

Ans.31 (2)

Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:
M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#V©J*Y

32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) N
2) $
3)4
4) W
5) None of these

Ans.32 (1)

33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
1) U
2) D
3) E
4) ©
5) None of these

Ans.33 (5)

34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Ans.34 (3)

35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

Ans.35 (3)

36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) P5A
2) 4AE
3) QIK
4) F8@
5) VN*

Ans.36 (5)

37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
1) E
2) K
3) Z
4) D
5) None of these

Ans.37 (5)

Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 © 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R Q T U .
Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
 (ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii)  If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code for the symbol.
 (iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.

38.
 9@374%
1) EIMQBF
2) FBQMIE
3) ZIMQBZ
4) FIMQBF
5) None of these  

Ans.38 (4)

39. 29©$#1
1) HEANRD
2) DEANRH
3) DEANRD
4) HEANRH
5) None of these

Ans.39 (1)

40. *479@©
1) UBQEIA
2) ZBQEIA
3) ZBQEIZ
4) ABQEIU
5) None of these

Ans.40 (3)

41. % 286$3
1) FDGTNF
2) FDGTNM
3) FGDTNM
4) WGTNZ
5) None of these

Ans.41 (2)

42. 54#*@6
1) PBURIT
2) PBRUIP
3) TBRUIP
4) TBRUIT
5) None of these

Ans.42 (5)

43. $63©94
1) NTMAEN
2) BTMAEB
3) ZTMAEB
4) NTMAEB
5) None of these

Ans.43 (2)

Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second to the right of G

44.
 Who is to the immediate left of D?
1) H
2) C      
3) G
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.44 (2)

45. Who is second to the right of E?
1) B
2) G
3) H
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.45 (1)

46. Who is third to the left of B?
1) E
2) H
3) F
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

Ans.46 (5)

47.
 What is the position of G with respect to A?
1) Third to the left
2) Third to the right
3) Fifth to the left
4) Fourth to the right
5) Fifth to the right

Ans.47 (4)

48.
 In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
1) BGC
2) EFB
3) DAH
4) AEF
5) GCD

Ans.48 (3)

Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the  symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

49. Statements:   D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T
      Conclusions:  I. J @ T
                         II. J%T
                         III. D@T
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only either I or II is true
4) Only IV is true
5) Only either I or II and III are true

Ans.49 (5)

50. Statements: R@N,N©D, O$J,      J#B
      Conclusions: I. R @ J
                        II. J@N
                        III. B@D
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and III are true

Ans.50 (3)
51. Statements: W © B, B % V, V $ R, R@K
      Conclusions: I. K © B
                         II. R#B
                         III.V@W
1) Only I and II are true 
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true
4) AII I, II and III are true  
5) None of these

Ans.51 (3) 

52. Statements:   H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D © R
      Conclusions: I. D © M
                        II. R@M
                        III. H$T
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only I and II are true

Ans.52 (2)

53.
 Statements: B % J, J @ K, K © T, T $ F
      Conclusions: I. F @ K
                        II. B@K
                        III.B@F
1) Only I and II are true
2) Only I and III are true
3) Only II and III are true 
4) All I, II and III are true
5) None of these

Ans.53 (1)
54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N
      Conclusions: I. N @ M
                          II. F$M
                          III. K©B
1) Only I is true
2) Only II is true
3) Only III is true
4) Only II and III are true
5) None is true

Ans.54 (5)

Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.
Input       : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38
Step I      : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38
Step II     : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38
Step III    : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38
Step IV     : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then
Step V      : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then
Step VI     : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Five
2) Six
3) Four
4) Seven
5) None of these

Ans.55 (2)

56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
1) Three
2) Four
3) Five
4) Six
5) None of these

Ans.56 (2)

57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely be the input?
1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34
2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79
3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

Ans.57 (4)

58.
 Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last?
1) VI
2) VII
3) VIII
4) IX
5) None of these

Ans.58 (1)

59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step VI?
1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15
2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there
3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there
4) There will be no such step
5) None of these

Ans.59 (4)


60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
1) IX
2) VIII
3) VII
4) VI
5) None of these

Ans.60 (5)

Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010.
(ii) be postgraduate in Personnel
Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks.    
(iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation.
(iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past three years.
(v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at
(A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
(B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman.
In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-0572010.
Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.

61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process.

62.
 Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process.

63.
 Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years.

64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back.

65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year.

66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th December 1971.

67.
 Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th.

69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her post- graduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation last year.

70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in the Selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years.

Answers :(Q.61-70)
 
Q.No.Person(i)(ii)/(A)(iii)/(B)(iv)(V)Ans
61.Pranab1
62.Sheetal3
63.Prabir(√)4
64.Shailesh(√)5
65.Navin×2
66.Meera×2
67.Akash(√)4
68.Shekhar1
69.Sunetra3
70.Mohit(√)5
Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

71.
 (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop.
(B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop.

Ans.71 (1)

72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy road.
(B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement.

Ans.72 (2)

73.  (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated condition.
(B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining students to a make-shift school.

Ans.73 (1)

74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road.
(B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining.

Ans.74 (1)

75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from the next academic year.
(B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than that of the neighbouring states.

Ans.75 (2)

FRIDAY, MARCH 25, 2011

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam., 2008

 Reasoning
(Exam Held on 14-12-2008)

1. In a certain code SOUTHERN is written as UVPTMQDG. How is MARIGOLD written in that code?
(A) JSBCNFKS
(B) JSBNHPME
(C) JSBNCKNF
(D) NBSKCJNF
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Volcano
(C) Storm
(D) Hurricane
(E) Cyclone
Ans : (B)

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EVAPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)

4. How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed with the letters ITED using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 5–6) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 kms. towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 kms. It now runs 6 kms. after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 kms. and stops at point Q.

5. How far is point Q with respect to point P ?
(A) 16 km
(B) 25 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 0 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
(E) North-West
Ans : (D)

7. If each of the consonants of the word PURCHASED is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel is substituted by the letter following it, which of the following letters would have the same letter on either sides ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) F
(D) Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. If all the letters in the word NEIGHBOURS are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

9. Asha ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in an examination. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scorers respectively ?
(A) Nidhi, Kavita
(B) Kavita, Mamta
(C) Anil, Kavita
(D) Prashant, Mamta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digit/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
E R J L N A Q D P U B F I K T H
Digit/Symbol :
* 2 © 9 6 # 5 1 % $ £ 4 @ 7 3 8
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is to be coded as the code for vowel following the first letter.
(ii) If there are no vowels in the group of letters the codes for the fifth letter from the right and the fifth letter from the left are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel, the codes for both the vowels are to be interchanged.

11. PNEBJI
(A) %6@£©*
(B) %6*@£©
(C) %6*£©@
(D) @%£©6*
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. FABLNK
(A) #4£96#
(B) £4#96#
(C) 4#£96#
(D) 49#6#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. LPKNJB
(A) 9%£67©
(B) 9©76%£
(C) 9%76©£
(D) 96©7%£
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. DTQKNH
(A) 135768
(B) 137568
(C) 138765
(D) 165783
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. TNAPUB
(A) 36%$#£
(B) 36#%$£
(C) 63#%$£
(D) 36$%#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some jeeps are trains.
All trains are buses.
Some boats are jeeps.
Some scooters are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some scooters are trains.
II. Some bots are buses.
III. Some jeeps are scooters.
IV. All buses are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Statements :
All teachers are engineers.
All engineers are cooks.
Some cooks are merchants.
All merchants are poets.
Conclusions :
I. Some cooks are teachers.
II. Some merchants are engineers.
III. All cooks are engineers.
IV. Some cooks are poets.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
Some hammers are nails.
All nails are screws.
All screws are nuts.
Conclusions :
I. All nuts are screws.
II. Some nuts are tools.
III. Some hammers are screws.
IV. All nuts are nails.
(A) All follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :
All pens are bags.
All bags are glasses.
No glass is a spoon.
All spoons are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some books are bags.
III. No spoon is a pen.
IV. No bag is a book.
(A) Only II and III follow
(B) Only I, III and either II or IV follow
(C) Either II or IV follows
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Statements :
All petals are flowers.
All thorns are flowers.
Some leaves are thorns.
Some stems are flowers.
Conclusions :
I. Some petals are leaves.
II. All leaves are flowers.
III. Some stems are petals.
IV. No petal is a leaf.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and either I or IV follow
(D) Only either I or IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow—
129 642 921 476 308

21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to third digit of the highest number after adding 4 to each number ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (C)

23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 647
(B) 264
(C) 912
(D) 192
(E) 380
Ans : (E)

24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers ?
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 26
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number ?
(A) 129
(B) 642
(C) 921
(D) 476
(E) 308
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26-30) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arranement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
@ B D S 3 W A * V 6 9 Q J % H 8 U N I 2 T 4 # 7 5 $ K

26. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based upon their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) BD3
(B) %HU
(C) *V9
(D) T45
(E) S3A
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 19th from the left end ?
(A) %
(B) H
(C) J
(D) #
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
* 6 Q 9 J H % 8 N U I T ?
(A) N
(B) 4
(C) #
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. How many consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. F sits to the immediate right of D and third to the left of A. G sits third to the left of D who does not sit next to E. B sits next to G but not next to D. C does not sit next to either D or A.

31. Who sits to the immediate left of a ?
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. What is the position of H with respect to C ?
(A) Second to the left
(B) First to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following pairs sits between G and D ?
(A) AC
(B) CF
(C) HB
(D) FA
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of which of the following (excluding A) would not change ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Four of the following are alike based upon their seating arrangement around the circle, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) FH
(B) GE
(C) CD
(D) BG
(E) EF
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36-40) Read the following information carefully and answers the questions which follow—
‘A × B’ means ‘A is brother of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

36. How is T related to P in the expression ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’ ?
(A) Maternal grandmother
(B) Maternal grandfather
(C) Paternal grandmother
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following means ‘P is sister of S’ ?
(A) P + Q ÷ R – S
(B) P + Q ÷ R ×S
(C) P × Q – R + S
(D) P ÷ Q + R × S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. How is P related to S in the expression ‘S ×R + Q ÷ P’ ?
(A) Father
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. How is R related to P in the expression ‘P + Q ×R – T’ ?
(A) Niece
(B) Paternal Uncle
(C) Paternal Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. How is S related to P in the expression ‘P – Q ÷ R ×S’ ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41-45) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answers—
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.

41. Statement : Should the number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of nation.
II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.
Ans : (B)

42. Statement : Should all correspondence courses at graduate level be stopped ?
Arguments :
I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to persue studies and earn at the same time.
II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.
Ans : (E)

43. Statement : Should only nuclear power be used to generate electricity ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.
II. No, Radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large scale use.
Ans : (B)

44. Statement : Should the Govt. remove all the slums in major cities ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living in big cities.
II. No inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.
Ans : (D)

45. Statement : Should cricket replace hockey as the national sport of India.
Arguments :
I. Yes, the performance of hockey team has been dismal since last few years.
II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no two countries must have the same national sport.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46-50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers—

(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

46. On which month of the year was Divya born ?
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born after June and before September.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.
Ans : (E)

47. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as ‘pe so la ti’ ?
I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.
II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.
Ans : (E)

48. What is Sumit’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students ?
I. Ajay is 6 ranks below Sumit and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Ashu is 4 ranks above Sumit and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.
Ans : (C)

49. How many sisters does Mala have ?
I. The only brother of Mala’s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Mala’s mother has two siblings.
Ans : (D)

50. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North ?
I. A does not sit next to D who does not sit next on the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes – A, B and C. There are three girls among the seven students who study in each of the three institutes. Two of the seven students study BCA, two study medicine and one each studies Aviation Technology, Journalism and MBA. R studies in the same college as P who studies MBA in college B. No girl studies journalism or MBA. T studies BCA in college A and his brother W studies Aviation Technology in college C. S studies journalism in the same college as Q. Neither R nor Z study BCA. The girl who studies BCA does not study in college C.

51. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine ?
(A) QZ
(B) WZ
(C) PZ
(D) SZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

52. In which college does Q study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

53. In which of the colleges do three of them study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is the field of study of Z ?
(A) Aviation Technology
(B) BCA
(C) MBA
(D) Medicines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

55. Which of the following three represents girls ?
(A) SQR
(B) QRZ
(C) SQZ
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/criteria.
(i) A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.
(ii) An age of atleast 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.7.2008.
(iii) Have a post-qualification work experience of atleast 2 years.
(iv) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection process.

However, if the candidates fulfills above mentioned criteria except—
(a) At (i) if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation degree with minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HRManager of the organization.
(b) At (iii) if the candidate fulfils all the eligibility criteria but of postqualification work experience but has secured 75% marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.

Based on the above information study carefully whether following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 1.7.2008.
Mark answers—

(A) If the candidate is to be selected.
(B) If the candidates is not to be selected.
(C) If the candidate may be referred to the HR-Manager.
(D) If the candidate may be referred to the Director.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take the decision.

56. Shruti Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1981, she had completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics in 2004 and secured 66% marks in it.
Ans : (A)

57. Pradeep Kumar has 6 years of post qualification work experience. His date of birth is 12.4.1972. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.
Ans : (A)

58. Zaheer Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduate in Economics from Bhopal in 1999 and has secureds 51% and 68% marks respectively. His date of birth is 26.11.1976. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2003 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

59. Harpreet Kaur has done graduation in Physics and is a post graduate in Science and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process, and has a post qualification work experience of 3 years.
Ans : (E)

60. Deepak Agarwal has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His date of birth is 11.11.1979.
Ans : (E)

61. Varun Arora has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed his degree in B.Sc securing 67% marks in it. His date of birth is 9.3.1975, and has a post qualification work experience of one year.
Ans : (D)

62. Varsha Nath’s date of birth is 6.2.1979. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in Commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has a post qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)

63. Asha Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a reputed firm. She has done graduation in Botany scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.1.1973, she has secured 53% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

64. Nitesh Burman has done Grduation in Chemistry and has secured 69% in it. His date of birth is 9.12.1981. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has four months of post qualification work experience.
Ans : (D)

65. Tanya Shetty has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post graduation in 1990. She was born on 1.5.1968. She is a graduate and a post graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduate as well as post graduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)

66. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

67. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one tthat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 15
(D) 21
(E) 27
Ans : (A)

69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Earth
(D) Uranus
(E) Moon
Ans : (E)

70. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ?
(A) O
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

71. What should come next in the following letter series ?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(A) J
(B) K
(C) A
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

72. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

73. In a certain code BOARD is written as ‘53798’ and TRAIN is written as ‘29714’. How is BAIT written in that code ?
(A) 5714
(B) 5412
(C) 5712
(D) 5912
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. ‘BE’ is related to ‘FI’ and ‘LO’ is related to ‘PS’ in the same way as ‘RU’ is related to ……….
(A) VY
(B) WZ
(C) VZ
(D) VX
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

75. Mohan walked 20 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 10 metres, then he took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again he took a right turn and walked 10 metres. How far is he now from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metres
(B) 30 metres
(C) 40 metres
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Nabard Bank Officers Exam., 2009


Reasoning 
(Exam Held on 29-3-2009)

1. In a certain code DESPAIR is written as TFEQSJB. How is NUMERAL written in that code ?
(A) OVNFMBS
(B) NVOFSBN
(C) NVOMFBS
(D) NVOFMBS
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, sixth and tenth letters of the word DISCLAIMER, which of the following will be the third letter from the left ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such words can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(A) I
(B) R
(C) D
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (A)

3. How many such digits are there in the number 27561493 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

4. If ‘yellow’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘green’, and ‘green’ is called ‘violet’, what is the colour of clear sky ?
(A) Green
(B) Violet
(C) Yellow
(D) Red
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. It was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9•25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus ?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 10 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) 25 minutes
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers ?
2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters EDOM using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Cousin
(C) Mother
(D) Brother
(E) Sister
Ans : (B)

9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SECURITY each of which has as many alphabets between them as there are in the English alphabetical series ?
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (C)

10. In a certain code STAR is written as 5$*2 and TORE is written as $32@. How is OATS written in that code ?
(A) 3*5$
(B) 3*$5
(C) 3$*5
(D) 35*$
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements : Some doctors are lawyers. All teachers are lawyers. Some engineers are lawyers. All engineers are businessmen.
Conclusions :
I. Some teachers are doctors.
II. Some businessmen are lawyers.
III. Some businessmen are teachers.
IV. Some lawyers are teachers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Statements : All plastics are glasses. Some sponges are glasses. All sponges are clothes. All clothes are liquids.
Conclusions :
I. All liquids are sponges.
II. Some plastics are clothes
III. All glasses are plastics
IV. All liquids are clothes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either II or IV follows
(C) Only IV follows
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All sands are beaches. All shores are beaches. Some beaches are trees. All trees are hotels.
Conclusions :
I. Some shores are hotels.
II. All beaches are shores.
III. Some beaches are hotels.
IV. Some sands are trees.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. Statements : All parrots are pigeons. Some crows are pigeons. Some sparrows are crows. All sparrows are koels.
Conclusions :
I. Some koels are crows.
II. Some parrots are crows.
III. Some sparrows are pigeons.
IV. No crow is a parrot.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and either II or IV follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. Statements : All chairs are tables. All tables are cushions. Some cushions are trolleys. All trolleys are lamps.
Conclusions :
I. Some lamps are tables.
II. Some trolleys are chairs.
III. Some cushions are lamps.
IV. All chairs are cushions.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III and IV follow
(C) Only either I or II follows
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions—

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second to the left of D who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G who is not an immediate neighbour of E.
H sits third to the right of B who sits second of the right of G.

16. Who sits between D and C ?
(A) Only B
(B) Only C and A
(C) Only G
(D) Only E
(E) Only G and E
Ans : (A)

17. Who sits second to the right of E ?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) G
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

18. What is the position of A with respect to H ?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Second to the left
(D) Second to the right
(E) Fourth to the left
Ans : (D)

19. Four of the following five are alike based upon their seating arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) CH
(B) FG
(C) DA
(D) BE
(E) GB
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
(A) DB
(B) EH
(C) FA
(D) GD
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
8 # B 2 © E K 7 % 5 A 1 $ G D 9 4 U * C 6 H @ I 3

21. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following should replace the question mark in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
2EK, %A1, G94, ?
(A) *6H
(B) UC6
(C) *CH
(D) *6@
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of seventeenth from the left end of the arrangement ?
(A) $
(B) G
(C) A
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

24. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end ?
(A) %
(B) K
(C) *
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’.
‘P ×Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.

26. How is T related to S in the expression ‘T ×R + V ÷ S’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Mother
(C) Aunt
(D) Uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

27. How is T related to S in the expression ‘T ×R ÷ V – S’ ?
(A) Father
(B) Sister
(C) Daughter
(D) Aunt
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. How is S related to T in the expression ‘T + R – V + S’ ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Nephew
(C) Son
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following means that ‘S is the husband of T’ ?
(A) T × R – V + S
(B) T – R ÷ V × S
(C) T – R + V ÷ S
(D) T ÷ R × V + S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. How is V related to T in the expression ‘T ÷ R + V × S’ ?
(A) Aunt
(B) Nephew
(C) Niece
(D) Uncle
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer—

(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

31. How is A related to B ?
I. A is sister-in-law of C who is the daughter-in-law of B who is the wife of D.
II. B is the mother of A’s son’s only uncle’s son.
Ans : (B)

32. Amongst A, B, C, D, E and F each are having a different height, who is the shortest ?
I. C is shorter than only B.
II. A is taller than only D and F.
Ans : (D)

33. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y ?
I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point X and point Y.
II. Walking 5 km to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms before each turn leads to point Y.
Ans : (D)

34. How is ‘must’ written in a code language ?
I. ‘you must see’ is written as ‘la pa ni’ and ‘did you see’ is written as ‘jo ni pa’ in that code language.
II. ‘you did that’ is written as ‘pa si jo’ in that code language.
Ans : (A)

35. On which day of the week does Arti’s birthday fall ?
I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls after Wednesday but before Sunday.
II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls before Friday but after Tuesday.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

36. I. Computer education has been made compulsory for all the classes by many schools.
II. The current job market prefers computer literate workforce.
Ans : (B)

37. I. The standard of education in evening colleges of the State has been deteriorating.
II. The standard of school education has been fast deteriorating in the State.
Ans : (E)

38. I. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors with immediate effect.
II. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with immediate effect.
Ans : (E)

39. I. The prices of fruits and vegetables fell substantially over the last few days.
II. The quality of fruits and vegetables improved considerably over the last few days.
Ans : (D)

40. I. Recent floods in the area changed the nutritional contents of the soil.
II. Farmers in the area switched over to cultivating rice instead of wheat.
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In the following questions, the symbols #, $, %, * and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘A # B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor equal to B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor greater than B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater nor equal to B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Mark answer—
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both conclusion I and II are true.

41. Statements :
A # B, B % C, C * D
Conclusions :
I. C @ A
II. A # D
Ans : (A)

42. Statements :
P $ Q, Q @ S, S % R
Conclusions :
I. P @ R
II. R $ Q
Ans : (D)

43. Statements :
W * X, X # Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions :
I. W * Z
II. W @ Z
Ans : (C)

44. Statements :
G @ H, H $ J, J % K
Conclusions :
I. K * G
II. J * G
Ans : (E)

45. Statements :
N @ M, M $ P, P # T
Conclusions :
I. T # N
II. P * N
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends studying seven different branches of engineering, namely Mechanical, Chemical, Electrical, Electronics, Civil, Computer and Aeronautical Engineering, not necessarily in this order. Each of them studies in three different colleges, X, Y and Z. Not less than two study in any college. D studies Electrical engineering in College X. The one who studies Chemical Engineering does not study in college Z. F studies Aeronautical engineering in college Y with only B. A does not study in college X and does not study Civil engineering. E studies Computer engineering and does not study in college X. G studies Electronics engineering but not in college X. None in college X studies Mechanical or Civil engineering.

46. Which of the following groups represents the persons studying in college Z ?
(A) D, B
(B) C, E, G
(C) A, G
(D) G, E, A
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

47. In which of the following colleges does C study ?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) Either X or Z
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(A) A—Civil—Z
(B) B—Chemical—Y
(C) C—Chemical—Z
(D) G—Electronics—Y
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

49. B studies in which of the following branches of engineering ?
(A) Chemical
(B) Mechanical
(C) Civil
(D) Cannot eb determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. Who studies Chemical engineering ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) E
(D) A
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

Reasoning Ability 
(Exam Held on 2-3-2008)
1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—
(A) 45
(B) 14
(C) 42
(D) 38
(E) 47

2. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) None of these

3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?
(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) None of these

4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?
(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) South-East
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D
(B) C E
(C) G I
(D) F H
(E) NL

6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3
5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer—
(A) 2
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) O
(E) X

8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the oldest ?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?
(A) H A F $
(B) A F H $
(C) A D F $
(D) B H F $
(E) None of these

10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then—
20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these

11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How is the boy related to Meena ?
(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Fruit
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Petal
(E) Tree

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 26
(B) 34
(C) 72
(D) 46
(E) 38

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Cuckoo
(B) Crow
(C) Bat
(D) Parrot
(E) Sparrow

16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer—
(A) E
(B) A
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y

Directions (Q. 18 to 24)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements : Some blades are papers. Some papers are books. Some books are pens.
Conclusions :I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) None follows
(E) Only II and III follow

19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles. All marbles are buses. Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions :I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III and II follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these

20. Statements : Some trees are jungles. Some jungles are flowers. All flowers are streets.
Conclusions :I. Some streets are jungles.
II. Some streets are trees.
III. Some flowers are trees.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these

21. Statements : All desks are tables. All tables are chairs. Some chairs are sofas.
Conclusions :
I. Some sofas are desks.
II. Some chairs are desks.
III. Some tables are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

22. Statements : Some cycles are bikes. No bike is flower. All flowers are goats.
Conclusions :I. No goat is cycle.
II. Some flowers are cycles.
III. Some goats are bikes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow

23. Statements : All rivers are hills. All hills are rocks. Some rocks are sticks.
Conclusions :I. Some sticks are hills.
II. Some sticks are rivers.
III. Some rocks are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow

24. Statements : All tyres are cars. All wheels are cars. All cars are trains.
Conclusions :I. All tyres are trains.
II. Some trains are wheels.
III. Some trains are cars.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) All follow

Directions (Q. 25 to 32)—In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter :
B M K A T R E U N H F I WD P
Digit/Symbol Code :
7 % 5 ©6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 ♦ 4
Conditions :(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for these two are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in each question.

25. RNWDEF
(A) 9 @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(B) # @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(C) # @ 3 ♦ 8 9
(D) # 3 ♦ @ 8 #
(E) None of these

26. MATRBW
(A) % © 6 9 7 3
(B) 3 © 6 9 7 3
(C) % © 6 9 7 %
(D) 3 © 6 9 7 %
(E) None of these

27. EDPKTA
(A) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 ©
(B) © ♦ 4 5 6 8
(C) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 8
(D) 8 ♦ 5 4 6 ©
(E) None of these

28. ABUHFI
(A) © 2 1 7 # $
(B) © 7 2 1 # ©
(C) $ 7 2 1 # $
(D) © 7 2 # 1 $
(E) None of these

29. WPTMBI
(A) $ 4 6 % 7 3
(B) 3 4 6 % 7 $
(C) 3 4 6 % 7 3
(D) $ 4 6 % 7 $
(E) None of these

30. FHITWU
(A) # 1 $ 6 3 #
(B) 2 1 $ 6 3 2
(C) # 1 # 6 3 2
(D) 2 1 $ 6 3 #
(E) None of these

31. HUDBRE
(A) 1 2 7 ♦ 9 8
(B) 1 2 ♦ 7 9 8
(C) 8 2 ♦ 7 9 1
(D) 8 ♦ 2 7 9 1
(E) None of these

32. IMPNWK
(A) 5 % 4 @ 3 $
(B) $ % 4 @ 3 5
(C) $ % 4 @ 3 $
(D) 5 % 4 @ 3 5
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 33 to 40)—Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

34. Input :
72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

35. Input :
nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56
Which of the following will be step III ?
(A) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
(B) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
(C) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(D) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(E) None of these

36. Step II of an input is :
16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Which of the following will be step V ?
(A) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(B) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(C) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these

37. Step III of an input is
15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(B) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(C) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

38. Input :
milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) VII
(D) VIII
(E) None of these

39. Step III of an input is :
36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen How many more steps will required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

40. Input :
new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 41 to 45)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call center. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.

R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.

41. Which of the following is W’s day off ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

42. Which of the following is R’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II ?
(A) RP
(B) RV
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following is Q’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I ?
(A) RV
(B) RP
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 46 to 50)—In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement give the answer—
(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

46. Statement : A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates for applying for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions :
I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want to join a nationalized bank.

47. Statement : The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within the city will be free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions :
I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.

48. Statement : “Our Europe Holiday Package costs less than some of the holiday Packages within the country”—An advertisement by an Indian travel company.
Assumptions :
I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the places within the country at comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.

49. Statement : The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.
Assumptions :
I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II. The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.

50. Statement : A large number of students and parents stood in the queue to collect forms for admission to various under-graduate courses in the college.
Assumptions :
I. The college authority may be able to admit all those who stood in the queue.
II. The college authority may have adequate number of forms for all those standing in the queue.

Directions (Q. 51 to 56)—Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M 4 E T % J 9 I B @ U 8 © N # W F 1 V 7 ♦ 2 A H 3 Y 5 $ 6 K

51. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth fom the right end of the above arrangement ?
(A) A
(B) %
(C) I
(D) Y
(E) None of these

52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
4 T % 9 B @ 8 N # F V 7 ?
(A) 2 H 3
(B) 2 H Y
(C) ♦ A H
(D) ♦ A 3
(E) None of these

53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) J I T
(B) 3 5 A
(C) $ K Y
(D) A 3 ♦
(E) 8 © @

54. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

55. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

56. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Directions (Q. 57 to 63)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

57. Statements : M © T, T @ J, J # D
Conclusions :
I. D # T
II. D % T
III. D % M
(A) All are true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only either I or II is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true

58. Statements : H $ J, J © M, M @ T
Conclusions :
I. H % M
II. H $ T
III. T % J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these

59. Statements : R @ N, N % E, E # K
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. K % N
III. E % R
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true

60. Statements : M © K, K % T, T $ R
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. R © M
III. T © M
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these

61. Statements : D # W, W $ Z, Z % M
Conclusions :
I. Z @ D
II. M © D
III. D $ M
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) All are true
(E) None of these

62. Statements : K % N, N $ B, B © D
Conclusions :
I. D % N
II. K % D
III. B © K
(A) None is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I is true
(E) Only II and III are true

63. Statements : T # A, A $ B, B @ D
Conclusions :
I. D # A
II. D # T
III. B @ T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true

Directions (Q. 64 to 70)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-Finance in an organisation. The candidate must—
(i) Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50 per cent marks.
(ii) Be a post-graduate in Management with specialization in Finance.
(iii) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.2.2008.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least two years in the Accounts/Finance department of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria EXCEPT—
(a) At (ii) above, but has worked as Deputy Manager—Finance in an organization for at least three years, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(b) At (v) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to be referred
to President-Finance.

In each question below, detailed information of one candidate is provided. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in case of each candidate.

All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2008, mark answer—
(A) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(B) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
(C) If the case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(D) If the case is to be referred to President-Finance.
(E) If the candidate is to be selected.

64. Neeta Kothari was born on 10th September 1975. She has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing her MBA with Finance specialization. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.

65. Gopal Sharma has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA in Finance with 75 per cent marks. He was born on 25th may 1978. He has secured 39 per cent marks in the selection process.

66. Sikha Dwivedi was born on 8th March 1975. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduation. She has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

67. Samir Malhotra has secured 55 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA. He was born on 24th February 1980. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Somnath Banerjee was born on July 8, 1972. He has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and MBA-Finance. He has also secured 70 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing his MBA.

69. Ashok Chandra has secured 70 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working for the past three years in the Finance Dept. of an organization after completing his MBA. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th December 1979.

70. Avinash Chopra has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing graduation with 65 per cent marks. He has also done a diploma in Finance Management. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 3rd April, 1978.

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C)
7. (A) 1st, 4th and 7th digits of the number 4 6 7 1 3 5 8 and 4, 1 and 8 respectively. The number formed with these digits is 841 which is the perfect square of two digit odd number 29. The digit at 10th place it is 2.
8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (E) All the rest are the parts of a tree.
14. (C)
15. (C) All the rest birds can see.
16. (C)
17. (E) 2nd, 5th, 6th and 10th letters of the word STREAMLINE are T, A, M and E respectively. The meaningful words formed with these letters are : TEAM, TAME, MEAT and MATE.
18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (C) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Hence, 5 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
34. (D) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Hence, VI steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
35. (A) Input # nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56.
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56.
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
36. (D) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake There is no V step.
37. (D)
38. (B) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
The last step is VI.
Hence, the prelast step is V.
39. (A) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box.
Hence, 3 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
40. (A) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join.
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join.
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join.
Hence, four steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 17th from the right end is N and 9th to the right from N is A.
52. (A) 53. (E) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (B) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Neeta Kothari in graduate examination.
65. (D) Gopal Sharma fulfils all the conditions excepts (v) and accordingly to (b) he obtained marks in M.B.A. more than 70%. So his case will be referred to President-Finance.
66. (A) Sikha Dwivedi neither fulfils the condition (ii) nor (a). Hence she is not to be selected.
67. (E) Samir Malhotra fulfils all the conditions. So he is to be selected.
68. (A) The age of Somnath Banerjee is more than 35 years. So he is not to be selected.
69. (A) Ashok Chandra neither fulfils the condition (v) nor (b). Hence, he is not to be selected.
70. (C) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Avinash Chopra, but according to condition (a), all are fulfil except condition (ii). The case is to be referred to General Manager Finance.

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